Title: Ortho528 MCAT Deck
Tags: bb physiology cp ps cardiovascular metabolism GI digestion renal biochem respiratory nervous_system_organization lab_methods ochem muscles genetics waves sociology enzymes AA molecules electricity reproduction hormones acids_and_bases NS kinetics optics atoms cells

Q: Peptide bonds are formed by what what reaction?
A: Nucleophilic addition - elimination from amino to carboxylic acid

Q: [...] is the reaction that breaks peptide bonds.
A: Hydrolysis

Q: [...] cleave peptide bonds in a specific process called [...]
A: Proteases; proteolysis

Q: Histidine's sidechain has a pKa of [...]
A: 6.5

Q: When pH is < pKa an amino acid exists in its [...] form
A: protonated

Q: Cysteine forms a [...] in a [...] environment.
A: disulfide bridge; oxidizing

Q: The extracellular space is an [...] environment.
A: oxidizing

Q: A [...] is [...] when it has 4 unique groups bonded to it.
A: carbon; chiral

Q: Group one of the periodic table are known as [...]
A: alkali metals

Q: [...] are group 2 of the periodic table
A: Alkaline earth metals

Q: A [...] is a single covalent bond
A: sigma bond

Q: A double covalent bond consists of a [...] and [...] bond
A: sigma; pi

Q: When transition metals form bonds they lose bonds first from their [...], then from their [...]
A: s oribital; d orbital

Q: Coulomb's law
A: F = kq_1q_2 / r^2

Q: [...] is the amount of charge felt by the most recently added electron
A: Z_eff

Q: Why don't new electrons receive as much shielding going across a period?
A: Because they are added at the same energy level as previous electrons

Electrons added to new 3s subshell

Q: Why are cations smaller than their neutral element?
A: Zeff increases because there are more protons relative to electrons

Q: Why does ionization energy decrease down a group despite the increased Zeff?
A: Because the radius in coulombs law is squared in the denominator vs the proportional influence of the greater Zeff

Q: Elements with greater electronegativity have a [...] Zeff.
A: higher

Q: No two electrons can have the same 4 [...] according to the Pauli exclusion principle.
A: quantum numbers

Q: what is the shape of the p orbital?
A: dumbell

Q: Which shell is the most recently added e- in Ag, which is in period 5, located in?
A: 4, shell lags 1 behind period for transition metals

Q: What two things can you not fully know about an elementary particles motion?
A: position and momentum

Q: New electrons join the shell with the [...] energy level available
A: lowest

Q: Only electrons from the [...] are considered [...] electrons.
A: s and p subshells; valence

Header: electron configuration

Q: Why are electrons in higher shells at higher energy?
A: Because there is increased electro static potential due to the increased distance from the protons

Q: electron configuration of [...] is [...]
A: Cr; [Ar] 4s^13d^5

Q: [...] pull an exra electron from the 4s shell to half fill and fill their 3d shell
A: Cr and Cu

Q: Electrons will not fill any orbital in the same subshell until [...]
A: all orbitals in that subshell contain at least one electron

Q: Elements with unpaired electrons are [...]
A: paramagnetic

Q: Planck's quantum equation
A: ΔE = hf

Q: Planck's constant
A: 6.6 x 10e-34 J s

Q: Why can't electrons occupy energy levels between electron shells?
A: Because their energy is quantized

Q: A photon is [...] when it does not have enough energy to bump an electron to the next energy level
A: reflected

Q: When an electron drops from an energy level it releases a photon with a frequency of [...]
A: deltaE = hf

Q: The minimum amount of energy required to eject an electron is called the [...] of the metal
A: work function Φ

Q: ClO-, CLO2-, ClO3-, ClO4-
A: hypochlorite, chlorite, chlorate, perchlorate

Q: The [...] suffix is used for the anion with the [...] oxygens
A: -ate; most

Q: The [...] suffix is used for the anion with the [...] oxygens
A: ite; least

Q: Monoatomic and simple polyatomic anoions are given the suffix [...]
A: -ide

Q: NaH
A: Sodium Hydride

Q: If an oxyanion has a hydrogen the word [...] is added, like HCO3-
A: hydrogen

Q: SI base uit for mass
A: Kilogram

Q: SI Base unit for current
A: Ampere, A

Q: SI Prefix deci
A: 10^-1

Q: SI prefix femto
A: 10^-15

Q: SI prefix Pico
A: 10^-12

Q: SI Unit for force
A: Newton, kg m s^-2, = mass * accel.

Q: SI prefix Nano
A: 10^-9

Q: SI prefix centi
A: 10^-2

Q: SI prefix Milli-
A: 10^-3

Q: Combination reaction
A: A + B -> C reaction type

Q: C -> A + B reaction type
A: Decomposition

Q: A +BC -> AC + B reaction type
A: Single Displacement

Q: AB + CD -> AD + BC reaction type
A: Double Displacement

Q: [...]amu in 1 gram
A: 6.02 x 10e23

Q: High temperatures drive an equation toward the more stable [...] product
A: thermodynamic

Q: For a reaction to occur, colliding molecules must have both sufficient [...] and [...]
A: kinetic energy; proper orientation

Q: z in the Arrhenius equation
A: The collision frequency

Q: p in the Arrhenius equation
A: The effective spatial orientation (steric factor)

Q: The fraction of collions having sufficient energy for reaction in the Arrhenius equation
A: e^-Ea/RT

Q: Why does an increase in activation energy decrease the rate constant of the reaction?
A: Because the activation energy factor is in the denominator of the Arrhenius equation.

Q: Why does the rate constant increase w/ temp. or pressure
A: Because there is an increase in collisions with sufficient K.E.

Q: According to the rate law, temperature is [...] to the rate of a reaction.
A: directly proportional

Q: Why is reaction rate measured in mol L^-1 s^-1?
A: Because it measures the concentration change of a reactant or product over time

Q: An [...] reaction occurs in a single step.
A: elementary

Q: What is the average reaction rate of this equation: 2N_2O_5 -> 4NO_2 + O_2?
A: \frac{1}{2}\frac{Δ[N_2O_5}{t}

Q: O_2 is produced at [...] the rate of disappearance of NO_2 in the following reaction:  2N_2O_5 -> 4NO_2 + O_2
A: half

Q: Elementary reaction rate equation serves as a good approximation of reaction rate in a multistep reaction if the concentration of [...] is [...]
A: intermediate; low

Q: What is the equation used to calculate the forward rate of a reaction?
A: rate_forward = k_f[A]^α[B]^β

Q: α and β represent what in the following reaction? k_f[A]^α[B]^β
A: The reaction order of each reactant

Q: The overall order of a reaction is the [...] in the rate equation.
A: sum of α and β

Q: Why do the stoichiometric constants represent the reaction order of reactants in an elementary reaction?
A: Since the reaction occurs in a single step, the overall order of a reactant's concentration in a reaction is equal to the number of atoms of that reactant required to collide in the reaction.

Q: If a reaction is [...], then the order of its reactants is [...]
A: not elementary; determined experimentally

Q: The [...] is used to determine the [...] in a rate law equation.
A: Arrhenius equation; rate constant

Q: The [...] is only constant assuming [...]
A: rate constant; constant temperature

Q: To calculate the order of a reactant from experimental data, look at the [...]
A: change in the initial rate of the product relative to the change in initial concentration of the reactant

Q: Why does the rate law of a reaction increase with an increase in concentration of the reactants?
A: Because more reactions occur, which is captured by the fact that the concentration of a reactant is a factor in the equation

Q: What's an example of a zero order reaction?
A: An enzyme catalyzed reaction where the concentration of the substrate far outweighs the concentration of the enzyme. Rate of reaction does not really depend on any of the reactants.

Q: The alpha carbon on amino acids in the human body are all [...].
A: L / S

Q: Why might a reactant be zero order in a reaction?
A: If it's concentration plays no role in the rate of a reaction eg a substrate in a enzyme catalzyed reaction where the enzyme's concentration is much higher

Q: Why do solvents play an important role in determining the rate constant of a solvated reaction?
A: Because reactants typically interact much more with the solvent than other reactants, therefore the properties of the solvent are important in determining the rate of the reaction

Q: Radioactive decay follows [...] kinetics
A: first order

Q: Why does a catalyst not affect the thermodynamics of a reaction?
A: Because it does no change the energy difference between the reactants and products, it only makes the reaction reach equilibrium more quickly.

Q: Enzyme catalysts are more effective than lab catalyst because they are [...]
A: more specific

Q: In a first-order reaction, the reaction rate is [...] to the concentration of a single reactant.
A: directly proportional

Q: [...] is an example of a [...] order reaction.
A: Radioactive decay; first

Q: If a reaction step is before the rate determining step it [...] to the rate law.
A: still contributes

Q: When a catalyst's concentration is high relative to the reactants, is it included in the rate law?
A: No, because a change in catalyst concentration will not increase the reaction rate. There are plenty of available catalysts for the reactants to use.

Q: Why are the catalyzed and uncatalyzed rate constants included in a rate law calculation for a catalyzed reaction?
A: Because the catalyzed reaction and the uncatalyzed reaction are still both occuring, although the rate of the uncatalyzed reaction is typically very small compared to the catalyzed one.

Q: Why are enzyme catalysts typically more effective than lab catalysts?
A: Because they are super specific to their substrates.

Q: A catalyst affects the [...] but not the [...] of a reaction.
A: kinetics; thermodynamics

Q: Why does solvent affect the rate constant of reactions occuring in a liquid?
A: Because the reactants collide much more frequently and interact with the solvent molecules.

Q: Atomic nuclei are held together by the [...].
A: strong nuclear force

Q: The amount of atoms that remain after decay is expressed by what equation?
A: A_t = A_0e^(-kt)

Q: If 12.5% of a substance remains after 5 years, what is it's half life.
A: 12.5% is 3 half lifes, so 5/3 years.

Q: An alpha particle is equivalent to a [...].
A: helium nucleus

Q: What type of reaction is
A: Alpha decay

Q: In a hydrolysis reaction, reactant is broken apart by the addition of a [...] molecule.
A: water

Q: [...] is a reaction where two smaller molecules bond and release a [...]
A: Condesation; water molecule

Q: [...] are a [...] connected to a long hydrocarbon chain.
A: Fatty acids; carboxylic acid

Q: Fatty acids release their energy through [...]
A: oxidation of their C-H bonds

Q: [...] is the main function of the [...] molecule.
A: Energy storage; triglyceride

Q: [...] consist of large central lipid droplets sorrounded by a thin layer of cytoplasm.
A: Adipocytes

Q: [...] are triaglyerols with a [...] in place of one of the [...]
A: Phospholipids; phosphate group; fatty acids

Q: The polar charged heads of the phosphate group, make phospholipids [...]
A: amphipathic

Q: [...] are like phospholipids, but with an [...] backbone called a [...]
A: Sphoingolipids; amino alcohol; sphingosine

Q: Sphingolipids are often found in the [...]
A: cell membrane

Q: [...] are a class of four ringed lipid structure that include vitamin D and cholesterol.
A: Steroids

Q: [...] are a class of lipid consisting of a long chain alcohol ester connected to a fatty acid.
A: Waxes

Q: [...] are a lipid that regulates metabolic activities.
A: Steroids

Q: [...] are a class of lipids that act a local hormones, like prostoglandin.
A: Eicosanoids

Q: Lipids are carried between cells by [...]
A: apoproteins

Q: [...] are proteins that surround a lipid core
A: Apoproteins

Q: [...] reactions forms polysaccharides
A: Dehydration

Q: The formula for any carbohydrate is [...], hence their name.
A: Cn(H2O)n

Q: The liver converts almost all digested carbohydrates to [...]
A: glucose

Q: Cells oxidize [...] into the more usable molecule [...] when they need more energy.
A: glucose; ATP

Q: If a cell has sufficient ATP, it will turn glucose into [...] to store energy
A: glycogen

Q: [...] is a branch glucose polymer connected by [...]
A: Glycogen; alpha linkages

Q: Blood glucose level is regulated by the [...], which is one of the few places glycogen can be converted to glucose
A: liver

Q: [...] can absorb glucose against a concentration gradient
A: Epithilial cells and the proximal tubule of the kidney

Q: Cells absorb glucose through [...]
A: facilitated diffusion

Q: Amylose and amylopectin are examples of [...]
A: starches

Q: Cellulose is a glucose polymer connected by [...]
A: beta linkages

Q: [...] bonds join nucleotides
A: Phosphodiester

Q: DNA base pairs are read from [...]
A: 5'-3'

Q: Adenine and guanine are [...]
A: purines

Q: Cytosine and thymine are [...]
A: pyrimidines

Q: Cytosine and guanine form [...] hydrogen bonds
A: 3

Q: Uracil replaces [...] in RNA
A: Thymine

Q: The [...] has a partial double bond character due to [...].
A: peptide bond; electron delocalization between the N, C, and O in the amide

Q: The R group is attached to the [...] carbon of the amide making up the peptide bond.
A: alpha

Header: amino acids

Q: Hydrophobic residues pack because of [...]
A: entropy gains from reducing number of highly ordered waters

Q: [...] are proteins with [...] attached.
A: Glycoproteins; sugars

Q: [...] are lipids with [...] attached
A: Glycolipids; sugars

Q: Glycoproteins are found in the [...]
A: cellular plasma membranes

Header: chemicals

Q: Proteoglycans consist of more than 50% carbohydrates and are the major component of the [...]
A: extracellular matrix

Q: Cytochromes are proteins that require a prosthetic [...] group
A: heme

Q: Minerals are important because they create [...] in cells.
A: electrochemical gradients

Q: The induced fit model describes how a protein's [...] and a substrate [...]
A: active site; change shape

Q: Vmax is the maximum rate that can be reached by increasing [...]
A: substrate concentration

Q: Michaelis constant Km is a measure of [...]
A: concentration of substrate

Q: Why doesn't Km change with increased enzyme concentation?
A: Because the concentration required for Vmax does not change, and since Km is just 1/2 Vmax, it does not change either

Q: Why does enzymatic function drop off significantly at high temp?
A: Because the enzymes start to become denatured

Q: Enzyme cosubstrates transfer chemical groups to the [...] in enzymatic reactions.
A: substrates

Q: Non-protein components that help enzymes reach their maximum activity
A: Co-factors

Q: What is a common example of a cosubstrate
A: ATP, which is a cosubstrate for protein kinases to phosphorylate other proteins

Q: One form of a gene is called [...]
A: an allele

Q: The [...] is the count of all of the different alleles in a population
A: gene pool

Q: [...] occurs whenever there is a change in the [...]
A: Evolution; gene pool

Q: [...] can lead a population to speciation by increasing the number of homozygous individuals in that population without changing the allele frequency
A: Inbreeding

Q: A [...] occurs whenever there is a major event that results in a change to a group's allele frequency, making it not representative of the larger population's.
A: bottleneck

Q: [...] is the process by which the members of a species tailor their behaviors to exploit the environment.
A: Specialization

Q: Genetic or behavorial changes that are advantageous in a given environment are called [...]
A: adaptations

Q: [...] is an idealized state where [...] in a population would occur
A: Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium; no evolution

Q: [...] occurs whenever an allele is permanetly lost due to death of all population members with that allele
A: genetic drift

Q: A virus's [...] is a protein coat that surrounds genetic material
A: capsid

Q: A [...] is a mature virus cell located [...]
A: viron; outside of a host cell

Q: A bacteriaphage's [...] is at the bottom of the structure and injects the genetic material into bacteria.
A: tail

Q: A [...] surrounds the genetic material in an enveloped virus
A: lipid rich membrane

Q: A virus's envelope is taken from the [...]
A: host's plasma membrane

Q: Virus's find their targets by binding with [...] on the host cell.
A: glycoprotein receptors

Q: Most viruses that infect eukaryotes are introduced to the cell by [...]
A: endocytosis

Q: The [...] pathway of viral infection comandeers the host's [...] to create new virons.
A: lytic; synthetic machinery

Q: The viral genome is inserted into the hosts genome in the [...] pathway of viral infection
A: lysogenic

Q: Some virus's [...] are formed upon [...]
A: envelopes; exocytosis

Q: A virus's envelope can help it [...]
A: evade the host's immune system

Q: A viral [...] lets the host cell continue living and producing new virons.
A: envelope

Q: Bacteriophages generally cause their host cells to [...] after they have produced new virons.
A: lyse

Q: RNA+ is the [...] strand of RNA, while RNA- is the [...] strand.
A: coding; non-coding

Q: [...] transcribes RNA strands from + to -
A: RNA-dependent RNA-polymerase

Q: [...] DNA from viruses is translocated into the host cell's [...] where DNA polymerase creates its complementary strand.
A: Single stranded; nucleus

Q: [...] use [...] to turn RNA into dsDNA, which can be integrated into host's genome
A: Retroviruses; reverse transcriptase

Q: [...] are self-replicating [...] that cause infections
A: Prions; proteins

Q: [...] are the two kingdoms of [...]
A: Archaea and bateria; prokaryotes

Q: [...] have more similarities to eukaryotes than [...]
A: Archaea; bacteria

Q: [...] do not have membrane bound [...]
A: prokaryotes; organelles

Q: The genetic material in bacteria forms a large complex with protein called the [...]
A: nucleoid

Q: [...] bacteria are [...]
A: cocci; spherical

Q: [...] bacteria are [...]
A: bacilli; rod-shaped

Q: [...] bacteria are [...]
A: spirilli; spiral shaped

Q: The [...] of bacteria are made up of [...]
A: cell walls; peptidoglycan

Q: Different bacteria cell wall types can be determined using [...]
A: gram staining

Q: [...] bacteria have a [...]
A: gram positive; thick peptidoglycan cell wall that does not let the gram stain leave cell

Q: [...] bacteria have a [...]
A: gram negative; thin cell wall

Q: [...] bacteria's cell wall is surrounded by [...]
A: gram negative; two plasma membranes

Q: [...] bacteria have a liposaccharide layer that [...]
A: gram negative; protrudes from the outer plasma membrane towards the bacterial capsule

Q: [...] can help gram negative bacteria defend against many antibiotics.
A: The liposaccharide layer

Q: [...] in bacteria are made up of the protein [...]
A: Flagella; flagellin

Q: When a bacteria's flagella rotates clockwise it [...]
A: tumbles the bacteria, allowing it to change direction

Q: When a bacteria's flagella rotates counter clockwise it [...]
A: propels the bacteria forward

Q: [...] is the process by which bacteria move toward a food source.
A: chemotaxis

Q: In bacterial DNA replication, two DNA polymerases [...]
A: start at the same point and replicate in opposite directions

Q: [...] is the transfer of an [...] between two bacteria.
A: conjugation; exogenomic plasmid

Q: If a plasmid can be combined with a bacteria's genome, it is called [...]
A: an episome

Q: A bacteria must contain the [...] to undergo conjugation
A: conjugative plasmid, F+

Q: The [...] codes for the [...] that connects two bacteria in conjugation
A: F+ plasmid; sex pilus

Q: If an F+ plasmid is integrated into a bacterium's genome, the [...] may under go conjugation.
A: entire genome

Q: A plasmid is called [...] plasmid if it codes for [...]
A: an R; antibacterial resistance

Q: [...] is the the process of integration of external DNA into a bacteria's genome
A: Transformation

Q: Non virulent bacteria can become virulent if they undergo [...] of heat-killed virulent bacteria's DNA
A: transformation

Q: [...] is the transfer of DNA between two bacteria via a [...]
A: Transduction; viral vector

Q: In [...] a virus takes up a piece of a host bacteria's shattered [...].
A: transduction; genome

Q: [...] is a section of DNA that can jump from place to place in a bacterial chromosome.
A: A transposone

Q: If a virus picks up a section of a [...] it can integrate DNA into a new bacteria's genome with transduction
A: transposone

Q: Units of Planck's constant are [...]
A: J s

Q: Coenzymes are cofactors that are [...]
A: organic molecules

Q: Water-soluable vitamins often serve as [...]
A: coenzymes or their precursors

Q: The inactive pepsin, which is activated by low pH, is called a [...]
A: zymogen

Q: When the product of an enzyme chain inhibits an enzyme upstream it is called [...]
A: feedback inhibition

Q: Allosteric activators can change the conformation of an enzyme to increase reaction rate in a phenomenon known as [...]
A: positive cooperativity

Q: The Michaelis-Menten equation relates [...] to [...]
A: initial reaction velocity; substrate concentration

Q: At low substrate concentration [S] << Km, the reaction kinetics are [...]
A: first order, directly proportional to [S]

Q: A low Km reflects a [...] of the enzyme for the substrate.
A: high affinity

Q: On the Linweaver-Burke plot, an enzyme with a higher affinity has a [...] slope.
A: smaller

Q: An enzyme's [...] is decreased in the presence of noncompetitive inhibitor
A: Vmax

Header: Linweaver-Burke Plot, which type of inhibition?

Header: Michaelis-Menten Plot, which type of inhibition?

Q: Km is [...] in the presence of a noncompetitive inhibitor.
A: unchanged

Q: [...] compete with the substrate by binding reversibly with noncovalent bonds to the active site.
A: Competitive inhibitors

Q: [...] bind at a site other than the active site, when the substrate  has [...] to the active site.
A: Uncompetitive inhibitors; already bound

Q: [...] inhibitors increase a substrates apparent affinity for an enzyme.
A: Uncompetitive

Q: [...] inhibitors decrease Km and decrease Vmax
A: Uncompetitive

Q: Adding more substrate cannot overcome [...] inhibitors because [...]
A: uncompetitive; they only take effect when the substrate is bound to the enzyme

Q: Base units for Joules
A: [$$]\frac{kg \cdot m^2}{s^2}[/$$]

Q: [...] inhibitors can bind on the substrate-enzyme complex or just the enzyme.
A: Mixed

Q: All [...] inhibitors lower Vmax, although they can have differing effects on Km depending on which enzyme-substrate / just enzyme stage they favor
A: mixed

Q: Mixed inhibitors that favor the enzyme before the substrate have bound [...] Km
A: increase

Q: Mixed inhibitors that favor the enzyme substrate complex [...] Km
A: decrease

Q: [...] inhibitors are often [...] to an enzyme
A: Noncompetitive; not specific

Q: Noncompetitive inhibitors bind equally to [...]
A: enzyme alone and enzyme-substrate complex

Q: Noncompetitive inhibitors [...] Km
A: do not change

Q: Noncompetitive inhibitors [...] Vmax
A: lower

Q: [...] catalyze the transfer of electrons or hydrogen ions
A: Oxioreductases

Q: [...] catalyze reactions in which groups are transfered from one location to another.
A: Transferases

Q: [...] are enzymes that regulate hydrolysis reactions
A: Hydrolases

Q: [...] catalyze reactions in which functional groups are added to [...], or where [...] are formed from the removal of functional groups
A: Lyases; double bonds; double bonds

Q: [...] catalyze the transfer of groups within a molecule
A: Isomerases

Q: [...] catalyze condensation reactions couple with the hydrolysis of high energy molecules.
A: Ligases

Q: A [...] catalyzes the addition of one substrate to the double bond of a second substrate
A: synthase

Q: A [...] is an enzyme that [...] a substrate
A: kinase; phosphorlates

Q: A [...] is an enzyme that [...] a substrate.
A: phosphatase; dephosphoralates

Q: [...] are sections of DNA that can jump locations on a chromosome
A: Transposones

Q: In transduction, if a virus picks up a [...] it can jump into the new cell's [...]
A: transposone; chromosome

Q: The nucleus is surrounded by a double phospholipid bilayer called the [...]
A: nuclear envelope

Q: [...] allow RNA through, but not DNA
A: Nuclear pores

Q: Ribosomal RNA is transcribed in a section of the nucleus called the [...]
A: nucleolus

Q: Subunits of the ribosomes are assembled in the [...]
A: nucleolus

Q: mRNA exits the [...] and is translated on [...]
A: nucleus; ribosomes

Q: Proteins that are used in the cytoplasm are translated in the [...]
A: cytoplasm

Q: Proteins that are going to be exported from the cell are [...] and translated in the [...]
A: sequestered in a vesicle; Endoplasmic Reticulum

Q: The lumen is the internal space of the [...]
A: Endoplasmic reticulum

Q: [...] is located near the nucleous with [...]
A: The rough ER; ribosomes on its walls

Q: Proteins that are translated on the rough ER are [...] as they are translated.
A: propelled into the ER lumen

Q: [...] tell the cell to move newly translated proteins into the ER
A: Signal sequences of amino acids

Q: [...] is an organelle made of membrane bound sacs whose major functions are packaging and secreting proteins
A: The golgi apparatus

Q: [...] modifies and packages proteins for use in other parts of the cell and outside the cell.
A: the golgi apparatus

Q: [...] are not common in living cells, but appear in cells about to undergo [...]
A: Lysosomes; apoptosis

Q: The smooth ER is a tubular portion of ER that [...]
A: lacks ribosomes

Q: Lipids are stored in the [...] in adipocytes
A: smooth ER

Q: [...] are vesicles in the cytosol involved in both lipid and protein storage
A: Peroxisomes

Q: [...] are involved in the production and breakdown of hydrogen peroxide
A: Peroxisomes

Q: Mitochondria resemble [...] bacteria
A: gram negative

Q: The inner membrane of the mitochondria contains the [...]
A: electron transport chain of aerobic respiration

Q: The [...] moves things through the cell, and the cell itself
A: cytoskeleton

Q: Molecular motors use [...] to move things through the cell
A: microtubules

Q: Microtubules [...] end is anchored in the Microtubule organizing center
A: minus

Q: The major microtubule organizing center, the centrosome, is composed of a pair of [...]
A: centrioles

Q: [...] are specialized structures made from microtubules
A: Flagella and cilia

Q: [...] aka actin filaments interact with [...] to cause muscle contraction
A: Microfilaments; myosin

Q: [...] pinch the cytoplasm during cytokinesis
A: Microfilaments

Q: [...] maintain the cell shape and keratin is an example of them
A: Intermediate filaments

Q: The microtubules in cilia are arrange in a [...] with [...]
A: 9 pair outer circle; 2 lone tubules in the center

Q: Formula to calculate change in distance
A: delta x = v_0*t + 1/2 a*t^2

Q: Formula to relate velocity to initial velocity, acceleration and change in distance
A: v^2 = v_0^2 + 2a (delta x)

Q: Formula for peak height of a projectile
A: v = sqrt( 2gh )

Q: Vector subtraction is done by arranging [...]
A: head to head

Q: Force on object parallel to inclined plane
A: F = mg sin( theta )

Q: Normal force on inclined plane
A: F_n = mg cos( theta )

Q: Force applied against deforming force
A: F = -k delta x

Q: If there is acceleration there must be a [...]
A: net force

Q: The [...] says that illness is determined by a variety of influences rather than just the physical cause
A: biopsychosocial approach

Q: The [...] approach primarily examines the phyiscal factors in an illness
A: biomedical

Q: [...] says that human actors build reality rather than discovering an inherently valid reality
A: Social contstuctionism
Extra: ps

Q: In [...] an object falling is a brute fact, while the theory of gravity that explains it is an institutional fact
A: social constructionism

Q: [...] focuses on the shared tools that allow small groups to reach a shared understanding
A: Symbolic interactionism

Q: According to symbolic interactionism, symbols [...] change during the course of a conversation
A: can

Q: [...] analyzes how groups behave to contribute to long term [...]
A: functionalism; societal stability

Q: [...] states that groups act according to their own self interest
A: Conflict theory

Q: [...] falls short explaining societal change
A: functionalism

Q: A [...] is all of the beliefes, objects, assumptions, behaviors, and processes that make up a way of life
A: culture

Q: People who belong to the same [...] generally act similarly
A: culture

Q: [...] is the objects that are involved in a certain way of life
A: Material culture

Q: [...] is the ideas and beliefs that unify a group of people
A: Non-material culture

Q: [...] govern what behavior is acceptable in a group
A: Social norms

Q: A [...] is a subset of a population that maintains interactions or has a collection of shared experiences that creates a group identity
A: social group

Q: [...] is non-material culture that only has meaning in the mind
A: Symbolic culture

Q: Meanings are ascribed to symbols in symbolic culture by [...] and [...]
A: social norms; cultural values

Q: Meanings ascribed to rituals, gestures, and objects are a part of [...]
A: symbolic culture

Q: [...] is a 2 or more people living together and sharing a culture
A: Society

Q: [...] are hierarchical systems that bring structure to interpersonal interactions
A: Social institutions

Q: [...] are statistics used to describe society by quantifying subsets of the population
A: Demographics

Q: [...] is unequal access to resouces and variable quality of life within a population or geographical distribution
A: Spatial inequality

Q: A society with [...] would have equal treatment of all people with regard to prevention of environmental or health hazards
A: environmental justice

Q: When different demographics are present in different neighborhoods, [...] is present
A: residential segregation

Q: [...] is a system of stratification that groups members of society according to social standing
A: Social class

Q: Ability to influence others and status in a community determines one's [...]
A: social class

Q: [...] is the set of non-monetary factors that contribute to [...], e.g. the ability to fit into a social context.
A: Cultural capital; social mobility

Q: Networks and connections that may confer economic or personal benefits are known as [...]
A: social capital

Q: [...] causes most children born into low SES to form low SES families later in life.
A: Social reproduction

Q: For a molecule to be [...] every chiral carbon must be a mirror image
A: an enantiomer

Q: For resonance to occur the number of [...] must remain the same
A: unpaired electrons

Q: Acids are more acidic whenever their [...] exhibits resonance
A: conjugate base

Q: For resonance to occur, the species must have a [...] next to a [...]
A: p orbital or unshared pair of electrons; double or triple bond

Q: Partial ionic character can be exhibited in systems with [...] electrons
A: delocalized

Q: Electronegativity affects [...] distribution in a molecule
A: charge

Q: A functional group that has a partial negative charge is likely [...]
A: nucleophilic

Q: Nucleophilic functional groups are also considered Lewis [...]
A: bases

Q: [...] functional groups seek electron density
A: Electrophilic

Q: Electrophilic functional groups are considered Lewis [...]
A: acids

Q: Sterochemical priority ranks atoms with substituents of highest molecular weight [...]
A: highest

Q: R stereocenters have a substituent priority that rotates [...]
A: clockwise

Q: Molecules have the same relative configuration when [...]
A: one substituent is switched out but the others remain in the same position

Q: Enantiomers will rotate plane polarized light [...]
A: equal amounts in opposite directions

Q: An equal sample of enantiomers is known as a [...]
A: racemic mixture

Q: Enantiomers have identical physical and chemical characteristics except for iteractions with [...] and [...]
A: other chiral molecules; polarized light

Q: Diastereomers are different from enatiomers in that they are [...]
A: not mirror images

Q: [...] are diasteromers that differ at only one carbon
A: Epimers

Q: [...] are epimers that are formed when ring closure happens at an epimeric carbon
A: Anomers

Q: The epimeric carbon where a ring closes is also known as [...]
A: the anomeric carbon

Q: [...] isomers exhibit a dipole moment where [...] isomers do not
A: cis; trans

Q: A Z isomer has its highest priority substituents on [...] of the double bond
A: the same side

Q: The [...] is the complete sequence of nucleotides
A: Genome

Q: [...] affect gene expression but not nucleotide sequence
A: Epigenetics

Q: [...] is a unit of heredity that codes for a trait
A: A gene

Q: Inactive DNA is wrapped around [...]
A: histones

Q: Histones have a [...] charge which attract the [...]
A: positive; negatively charged DNA

Q: [...] is DNA that is not tightly wrapped and can be transcribed
A: Euchromatin

Q: Tightly packed chromatin is know as [...]
A: heterochromatin

Q: Single copy DNA is found in [...]
A: euchromatin

Q: [...] often contains repetitive sections of DNA
A: Heterochromatin

Q: Chromatin structure is highly regulated because it controls [...]
A: gene expression

Q: [...] causes DNA to wrap more tightly around histones
A: DNA methylation of cyteine nucleotides

Q: Homologous chromosomes are pairs tha code for the same [...] but can contain different [...]
A: traits; alleles

Q: [...] is genetic material that contributes to the regulation of the chemical changes that affect chromatin structure
A: non-coding RNA

Q: [...] helps remove introns post transcription
A: small nuclear RNA

Q: Most protein production occurs during the [...] phase of the cell cycle
A: G_0

Q: Because DNA in eukaryotes cannot leave the nucleus or mitochondrial matrix, [...] only occurs in these places
A: transcription

Q: Regulation of transcription plays a large role in gene expression because [...]
A: protein cannot be made unless there is mRNA to translate

Q: The initiation phase of transcription starts when [...]
A: transcription factors bind to promotor sequences

Q: The [...] is the sequence that designates the location for the start of transcription
A: promotor

Q: At the promotor, transcription factors assemble with RNA polymerase to form the [...]
A: transcription initiation complex

Q: The most commonly found promotor nucleotide sequence recognized by a given species of RNA polymerase is called the [...]
A: consensus sequence

Q: Variation from the consensus sequence causes [...]
A: a gene to be transcribed less frequently

Q: In elongation, RNA polymerase unzips the DNA to form the [...]
A: transcription bubble

Q: RNA polymerase transcribes mRNA based on the [...]
A: template, or antisense - strand

Q: RNA polymerase moves from [...] on the DNA creating RNA from [...]
A: 3'-5'; 5'-3'

Q: [...] is the main level of gene expression regulation in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
A: Transcription

Q: Rho proteins help RNA polyermase [...]
A: dissociate from DNA upon transcription termination

Q: Both the DNA coding strand and newly transcribed RNA are complementary to the [...]
A: DNA template strand

Q: [...] bind close to the promotor and affect RNA polymerase activity
A: Activators and repressors

Q: Eukaryotes have [...] DNA sequences that are much further from the promotors but still affect transcription
A: enhancer

Q: Regulation of gene expression in prokaryotes is usually a reponse to [...]
A: environmental changes

Q: Prokaryotes are known as [...] with many genes per RNA transcript
A: polycistronic

Q: In the [...] of prokaryotic genetic regulation, the genetic unit consisting of the operator, promotor, and the genes that contribute to a signle prokaryotic mRNA is called the [...]
A: Jacob-Monod model; operon

Q: The lac operon is activated when [...] and [...]
A: glucose is scarce; lactose is present

Q: The [...] of the lac operon is activated when [...]
A: catabolite activator protein; cAMP binds

Q: cAMP levels are raised in E. Coli when [...]
A: glucose is scarce

Q: CAP activates [...] of the lac operon, which is an example of [...]
A: the promotor; positive control

Q: Gene repression occurs in the lac operon when [...]
A: the lac repressor protein binds the operator site and prevents transcription of the lac genes

Q: The initial RNA nucleotide sequence arrived at through transcription is called the [...]
A: primary transcript

Q: Even before the eukaryotic mRNA is completely transcribed, its 5' end is [...]
A: capped in a process using GTP

Q: The 5' cap protects the mRNA from [...]
A: exonucleases

Q: The 3' end of mRNA is protected with a [...]
A: poly A tail

Q: mRNA is shortened through splicing before [...]
A: leaving the nucleus

Q: mRNA sections that are removed through splicing are called [...]
A: introns

Q: [...] are portions of mRNA that will be expressed.
A: Exons

Q: The snRNA in the splicing process acts as a [...]
A: ribozyme

Q: The complex of snRNPs and other proteins responsible for splicing is known as the [...]
A: spliceosome

Q: [...] allows the cell to incorporate different coding sequences into the mature mRNA.
A: Alternate splicing

Q: The genetic code is said to be [...] because 4 nucleotides can code for a possible 64 amino acids while only 20 are used
A: degenerative

Q: Start codon
A: AUG

Q: Stop codons
A: UAA, UAG, UGA

Q: The start codon codes for [...]
A: methionine

Q: The sequence of RNA nucleotides in the genetic code is written from [...]
A: 5'-3'

Q: [...] allows for certain codons to only match 2 of their 3 nucleotides to the tRNA
A: Wobble pairing

Q: Translation takes place on [...]
A: ribosomes

Q: Ribosomes are composed of [...] subunits
A: small and large

Q: The [...] manufactures the ribosome subunits
A: nucleolus

Q: [...] help the 5' end of mRNA attach to the small subunit of a ribosome
A: Initiation factors

Q: During initiation, a Met carrying tRNA binds in the [...] site of the ribosome
A: P

Q: The [...] is formed after a large ribosome subunit joins the small
A: initiation complex

Q: After translation initiation is complete, a new tRNA will enter the [...]
A: A site

Q: In elongation, a Met residue's [...] will be bonded to the the new amino acid's [...]
A: c-terminus; n-terminus

Q: Translation termination occurs whenever a [...]
A: stop codon reaches the A site

Q: [...] help proteins end up in the correct organelle
A: Amino acid signal sequences

Q: DNA replication occurs during the [...] phase of interphase
A: S

Q: Because each daughter cell contains one strand of original DNA, replication is said to be [...]
A: semiconservative

Q: During replication, eukaryotes have multiple [...] on a single chromosome
A: origins of replication

Q: The [...] is the complex of proteins that copy DNA
A: replisome

Q: [...] unzips the DNA strands
A: DNA helicase

Q: DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to [...]
A: an existing strand of DNA

Q: [...] is the RNA polymerase that creates the RNA primer during DNA replication
A: Primase

Q: DNA polymerase creates the new strand in the [...] direction
A: 5'-3'

Q: The leading strand of replication is unzipped in the [...] direction, while the lagging strand is unzipped in the [...] direction
A: 3'-5'; 5'-3'

Q: Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand are about [...] bp in eukaryotes
A: 1000-2000

Q: [...] joins adjacent Okazaki fragments
A: DNA ligase

Q: Once replication is complete, [...] are added to the ends of DNA
A: telomeres

Q: After replication, RNAase H [...] and DNA polymerase [...]
A: removes the RNA primers; replaces the primers with DNA

Q: The 4 steps of mitosis are [...]
A: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase

Q: During prophase, the 2 duplicated sister chromatids are [...]
A: joined at their centromeres

Q: During prophase, the centrioles [...]
A: start to move to opposite sides of the cell

Q: During prophase, the nucleus [...]
A: breaks down

Q: During prophase, the spindle apparatus forms and [...]
A: attaches to chromatids at their centrosomes with microtubules

Q: During metaphase, the chromosomes [...]
A: align at the center of the cell

Q: During anaphase, chromosome disjunction occurs when [...]
A: the sister chromatids are split at the centromere by shortening microtubules

Q: The splitting of cytoplasm between two daughter cells is known as [...]
A: cytokinesis

Q: The cytoplasm begins to split at the end of [...]
A: anaphase

Q: During telophase, the [...] starts to reform
A: nuclear envelope

Q: A chromosomal mutation occurs when [...]
A: the structure of a chromosome is changed

Q: Mutations in somatic cells are not as catastrophic as [...] because they are not proliferated in all cells
A: germ mutations

Q: [...] only change one nucleotide at a time
A: Point mutations

Q: An exchange of a purine for a purine is known as a [...]
A: transition mutation

Q: An exchange of a pyrimidine for a purine is known as a [...]
A: transversion mutation

Q: When a mutation does not change the translated amino acid it is known as a [...]
A: silent mutation

Q: When a mutation does change the codon, it is called a [...]
A: missense mutation

Q: A [...] is a mutation that creates a new stop codon
A: nonsense mutation

Q: When part of a chromosome breaks off, it is known as a [...]
A: deletion

Q: [...] is the deletion or duplication of an entire chromosome
A: aneuploidy

Q: [...] is the duplication or deletion of many chromosomes
A: polyploidy

Q: [...] has occured when 2 parts of different chromosomes swap places
A: Reciprocal translocation

Q: An [...] has occured when part of a chromosome is reversed
A: inversion

Q: Transposones can cause [...] chromosomal mutations
A: translocation and inversion

Q: Genes that stimulate growth in normal cells are known as [...]
A: proto-oncogenes

Q: [...] are genes that cause cancer
A: Oncogenes

Q: Meiosis is a special case of mitosis that creates [...]
A: gametes

Q: Meiosis I creates 2 [...] daughter cells
A: haploid

Q: During prophase I, [...] occurs causing genetic recombination
A: crossing over

Q: During prophase I, homologous chromosomes line up, creating [...]
A: tetrads

Q: The [...] is the complex of homologous chromosomes in prophase I
A: synaptonemal complex

Q: The shape of crossing over chromosomes is known as a [...]
A: chiasma

Q: Genes that frequently cross over together are said to be [...]
A: linked

Q: In anaphase I, homologous chromosomes [...]
A: separate to form haploid daughter cells

Q: [...] occurs when a chromosome does not split leaving one cell with an extra chromatid
A: Nondisjunction

Q: Nondisjunction can occur during [...]
A: anaphase I and II

Q: [...] undergo meiosis to produce diploid copies known as [...]
A: spermatogonium; primary spermocytes

Q: Primary spermocytes undergo [...] to produce [...]
A: meiosis I; secondary spermocytes

Q: Secondary spermatocytes undergo meiosis II to form [...]
A: spermatids

Q: [...] undergo mitosis to produce 2 primary oocytes before [...]
A: oogonium; the female is born

Q: Primary oocytes remain arrested in [...] until they receive hormones to participate in the menstrual cycle
A: prophase I

Q: When primary oocytes finish meiosis I, one of the daughter cells becomes a [...], while the other becomes a [...]
A: polar body; secondary oocyte

Q: The secondary oocyte begins meiosis II and arrests at [...]
A: metaphase II

Q: The secondary oocyte finishes meiosis II after [...], becoming an ovum
A: fertilization

Q: The joining of genetic material from sperm and ovum creates a [...]
A: zygote

Q: [...] is the term used to refer to the probability of a gene or allele being expressed if it is present
A: Penetrance

Q: [...] is the measure of how much the genotype is expressed as a phenotype
A: expressivity

Q: When a heterozygous individual exhibits a phenotype that is intermediate between its homozygous counterparts, the alleles are said to demonstrate [...]
A: incomplete dominance

Q: If a heterozygote exhibits both phenotypes, like human blood types, the alleles are [...]
A: co-dominant

Q: The phenotypic ratio of a dihybrid cross is [...]
A: 9:3:3:1

Q: Neurons do not require [...] to import glucose into the cell
A: insulin

Q: Dendrites are the structure that allow neurons to [...]
A: receive signals

Q: Dendrites sum input [...] to cause neuron to [...]
A: temporarily and spatialy; selectively fire action potential

Q: The [neuron structure] fires the action potential
A: axon hillock

Q: [...] bind ligands such as neurotransmitters and hormones and trigger processes in the cell
A: Receptors

Q: [...] allow ions into and out of the cell
A: Ion channels

Q: Ion channels specialize based on what [...]
A: ion they allow through

Q: The neuron acts as a biological [...] where differences in concentration initiate the moving of charge and thus create a voltage
A: concentration cell

Q: The most important ions for neuronal function are [...]
A: sodium and potassium

Q: At rest, there is a much higher [...] concentration of Na+ and a much higher [...] concentration of K+
A: extracellular; intracellular

Q: At rest, there is a build up of [...] just inside the membrane and [...] just outside it
A: negative charge; positive charge

Q: The [...] is stored potential used by the neuron to transmit a signal
A: resting potential

Q: The resting potential is established by [...]
A: the diffusion of potassium out of the cell through ion channels

Q: At rest the membrane is highly permeable to [...] and nearly impermeable to [...]
A: K+; Na+

Q: The concentration gradient at rest is created by [...] and [...]
A: K+ ions outside the cell; protein anions inside the cell

Q: The combination of the [...] pointing inside cell and the [...] pointing outside the cell create potassiums [...]
A: electrical gradient; chemical gradient; electrochemical gradient

Q: The [...] is used to maintain or reestablish the chemical gradient that is lost by diffusion at rest
A: Sodium/Potassium pump

Q: The Na+/K+ pump moves [...] out of the cell and brings [...] into the cell, preventing equilibrium and replenishing the concentration gradients of these ions
A: three sodium ions; two potassium ions

Q: The resting membrane potential is determined by the [...] of potassium
A: equilibrium potential

Q: The Nernst equation uses the [...] to determine the resting membrane potential
A: natural log of the ratio of extracellular and intracellular concentrations of potassium

Q: Nernst equation for potassium
A: [latex]\begin{displaymath}E=E^0 - \frac{RT}{nF}\ln\Big({\frac{[K^+]_{intracellular}}{[K^+]_{extracellular}}}\Big)\end{displaymath}[/latex]

Q: n is [...] in the Nernst equation
A: the ion's charge

Q: The [...] of a neuron is a flip between permeability to [...] at rest to [...]
A: action potential; K+; Na+

Q: At the start of an action potential, the [...] change configuration when the membrane potential is disturbed
A: voltage gated sodium channels

Q: [...] is the process of membrane potential reversal
A: depolarization

Q: [...] reopen to cause repolarization
A: voltage gated potassium channels

Q: The neuron becomes hyperpolarized because [...]
A: the K+ channels are slow to respond

Q: [...] are uncommon gap junctions between cells found in cardiac muscle, visceral smooth muscle, and few neurons
A: Electrical synapses

Q: Chemical synapses only flow in one direction, while [...] can go either way
A: electrical synapses

Q: Neurotransmitters are released by the presynaptic neuron whenever [...]
A: action potenial arrives, allowing Ca^2+ into the presynaptic neuron

Q: Neurotransmitters are held in [...], which are released by [...]
A: vesicles; exocytosis

Q: The action potential is propagated to the postsynaptic neuron whenever [...]
A: ion channels opened by the neurotransmitter receptors depolarize the postsynaptic neuron

Q: The [...] uses the alpha subunit of G-protein to trigger down stream actions in neurons
A: second messenger system

Q: Gene expression in neurons can be modified by action potentials through the [...]
A: second messenger system

Q: [...] which can divide, are often the cause of brain cancers
A: Glial cells

Q: Myelin wraps around axons and is produced by [...]
A: Schwann cells

Q: White matter is [...], while grey matter is not
A: myelinated

Q: Action potentials travel down myelinated neurons from one [...] to the next, a process called [...]
A: node of Ranvier; saltatory conduction

Q: [...] receive signals from a receptor cell that interacts with the environment
A: Sensory, afferent neurons

Q: [...] transfer signals from one neuron to another
A: Interneurons

Q: [...], or [...] neurons carry signals to a muscle or gland called the [...]
A: Motor; efferent; effector

Q: Neuron processes like axons and dendrites are bundled in the body to form [...]
A: nerves

Q: Some reflexes are parts of [...] that respond against a change
A: negative feedback loops

Q: CNS is informed during a reflex so it can [...]
A: trigger a more complex action

Q: [...] in the CNS can decrease the sensitivity and speed of a reflex so that it can proceed smoothly and only when needed
A: Supraspinal circuits

Q: A major function of the [...] is to integrate nervous signals between sensory and motor neurons
A: CNS

Q: The neurons of the [...] perform the sensory and motor functions of the nervous system
A: PNS

Q: The [...] handles sensory and motor functions and primarily functions to respond to the external environment
A: somatic nervous system

Q: The sensory neuron cell bodies are located in the [...]
A: dorsal root ganglion

Q: The motor neurons innervate only [...], which is involed in voluntary movement
A: skeletal muscle

Q: Somatic motor neurons synapse directly [...] and release the transmitter [...]
A: on their effectors; acetylcholine

Q: The [...] coordinates involuntary responses to environmental stimuli
A: autonomic nervous system

Q: The sensory portion of the [...] receives signals primarily from the organs inside the ventral body cavity
A: autonomic nervous system

Q: The motor portion of the autonomic nervous system conducts signals to [...]
A: cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands

Q: The two systems of the motor portion of the autonomic nervous system exert [...] control over one another
A: antagonistic

Q: The [...] is the "fight or flight" system and restricts bloodflow to the digestive and excretory systems
A: sympathetic nervous system

Q: The [...] controls the "rest and digest" functions
A: parasympathetic nervous system

Q: The cell bodies of neurons in the [...] are found in the spinal cord, while those in the [...] can be found in both the brain and the spinal cord
A: sympathetic nervous system; parasympathetic nervous system

Q: The sympathetic nervous system's cell bodies are found [...] in order to create a strong, coordinated signal
A: in ganglia far from their effectors

Q: The [...] nervous system's ganglia lie near their effectors because they do not need coordinated responses
A: parasympathetic

Q: The parasympathetic neurons use [...] as their neurotransmitter for both pre and post ganglionic neurons
A: acetylcholine

Q: Sympathetic neurons use the neurotransmitter [...] for their synapses on their effectors
A: norepinephrine, aka adrenaline

Q: The [...] is the structure that controls basic involuntary functions necessary for survival
A: brainstem

Q: The medulla, pons, and midbrain are structures in the [...]
A: brain stem

The medulla monitors blood CO_2 levels and adjusts respiration as well as sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation of the heart

Q: The [...] is the structure that coordinates communication between the motor cortex and the cerebellum
A: pons

Q: The [...] is the relay station for auditory and visual signals
A: midbrain

Q: The [brain structure] receives input from the sensory, motor, and vestibular neurons and coordinates movement
A: cerebellum

Q: The [...] is the structure that contains the thalamus and the hypothalamus
A: diencephalon

Q: The [...] processes all sensory information before it reaches higher cortical centers, and it processes all output from those higher cortical centers
A: thalamus

Q: The [...] regulates many of the body's basic physiological needs by maintaining homeostasis in multiple systems such as temperature and water balance
A: hypothalamus

Q: The [...] form a major site of interaction between nervous system and the endocrine system
A: hypothalamus and pituitary gland

Q: The [...] is the location of many higher-level functions of the nervous system such as consciousness, memory,  cognition, planning, and emotion
A: cerebral cortex

Q: The [...] is the location of executive functions such as planning and impulse inhibition
A: frontal lobe

Q: The [...] creates a map of the parts of the body such that specific sets of neurons control certain body parts
A: motor cortex

Q: The [...] also contains the [...], which directs voluntary movements
A: frontal lobe; motor cortex

Q: The [...] contains the somatosensory cortex
A: parietal lobe

Q: The somatosensory system is involved in the detection of physical stimuli such as [...]
A: touch, temperature, and pain

Q: The [...] is where visual information is processed
A: occipital lobe

Q: The [...] is primarily concerned with auditory and olfactory information
A: temporal lobe

Q: The hippocampus and the amygdala are central to the function of the [...]
A: limbic system

Q: The [...] is primarily concerned with memory and emotion
A: limbic system

Q: The [...] integrates information and imposes higher-level meaning and interpretation based on previous experience to the sensory signals it receives
A: cerebrum

Q: The brain exhibits some [...], e.g. the production and comprehension of language are localized to two areas in the left hemisphere
A: lateralization of cortical functions

Q: Mechanoreceptors are for [...]
A: touch

Q: Thermoreceptors are for [...]
A: temperature

Q: Nociceptors are for [...]
A: pain

Q: Electromagnetic receptors respond to [...]
A: light

Q: Chemoreceptors are used for [...]
A: taste, smell, and blood chemistry

Q: The cornea is nonvascular and largely made up of [...]
A: collagen

Q: The anterochamber of the eye is filled with [...]
A: aqueous humor

Q: The lens of the eye is naturally [...] and is flattened by [...] to change focus
A: spherical; ligaments

Q: The suspensory ligaments that hold the lens are connected to and controlled by [...]
A: ciliary muscle

Q: When the lens becomes more spherical, the focal point moves [...]
A: closer to the lens

Q: When the lens is relaxed and flattened, the focal point is [...]
A: further from the lens

Q: The retina contains the [...] photoreceptors that allow us to see
A: rods and cones

Q: The [...] contain a pigment that undergoes a chemical change when struck with a photon
A: photoreceptors of the eye

Q: [...] is an important precursor to the pigments of the eye
A: Vitamin A

Q: [...] are photoreceptors that respond to all colors in the range 390-700nm and therefore cannot see color
A: Rods

Q: [...] are found in 3 types, each of respond to a different wavelength range of light
A: Cones

Q: The [...] of the retina contains mostly cones, and is the focal point of light entering the eye
A: fovea

Q: The [...] is the circular structure of muscle that creates the pupil
A: iris

Q: The [...] nervous system retracts the iris, dialating the pupil, while the [...] nervous system constricts it
A: sympathetic; parasympathetic

Q: [...] receive information from their attached photoreceptors and also influence from nearby [...]
A: Bipolar cells; horizontal cells

Q: The inputs from photoreceptors in the eye are grouped into [...] which then collect into the [...]
A: ganglion cells; optic nerve

Q: The optic nerve passes information on to the [...] of the thalamus
A: lateral geniculate nucleus

Q: The [...] is the first stop for visual information in the occipital lobe
A: primary visual cortex

Q: The [...] travels to the temporal lobe and is involved in object recognition
A: ventral pathway

Q: The [...] projects to the parietal lobe and is involved in the location of objects
A: dorsal pathway

Q: The [...] begins after the eardrum
A: middle ear

Q: The [...] in the middle ear are used to increase the force delivered to the cochlea
A: three bones

Q: Inside the cochlea, sound waves vibrate [...] on hair cells
A: stereocilia

Q: The hair cells inside the cochlea are located inside the [...]
A: organ of Corti

Q: The [...] system is responsible for the senses of motion, equilibrium, and spatial orientation
A: vestibular

Q: The [...] detect twisting of the head with fluid and hair cells
A: semicircular canals

Q: The [...] detect tilting and linear acceleration of the head
A: otolith organs

Q: The vestibular system works together with the [...] to give a feeling of the body
A: kinesthetic sense

Q: The hair cells that detect sound are a type of [which receptor]
A: mechanoreceptors

Q: The hairs that detect higher pitched sounds are [...] and located [...]
A: stiffer; nearer to the middle ear

Q: There are [...] primary taste sensations
A: five

Q: Unlike chemoreceptors in the gustatory system, olfactory chemoreceptors are themselves [...]
A: sensory neurons

Q: Olfactory pathways do not pass through the [...] like other sensory systems
A: thalamus

Q: The axons of the olfactory chemoreceptors form the [...]
A: olfactory nerve

Q: The binding of chemicals to G-protein coupled receptors on the chemorecptors triggers an action potential that is transmitted by the olfactory nerve to neurons of the [...]
A: olfactory bulb

Q: The olfactory bulb projects directly into the [...] in the temporal lobe
A: olfactory cortex

Q: The olfactory bulb can provide a quick and direct pathway for smell to influence processes of memory and emotional experience becaue it [...]
A: projects directly into the amygdala and hippocampus in the temporal lobe

Q: In [...] phase, the cell has just divided, and begins to grow in size, producing new organelles and proteins.
A: G1

Header: Types of Cellular Junctions

Q: At the end of the G1 phase, if the conditions are favorable for [...], the cell enters [...], otherwise it enters [...] phase
A: division; S phase; G0

Q: [...] phase is a non-growing state distinct from interphase that is responsible for variations in length of the cell cycle between different types of cells
A: G0

Q: During [...] the cell devotes most of its energy to DNA replication
A: S phase

Q: During [...] phase, the cell prepares to divide, duplicating organelles, RNA, and proteins
A: G2

Q: At the end of the [...], the [...] checkpoint ensures that there is enough [...] to continue to mitosis
A: G2 phase; G2; mitosis promoting factor

Q: Equation for torque
A: T = F*r*sin(theta)

Q: Physical equilibrium is a state of [...]
A: no net force or torque

Q: If an object is not moving, it is in [...], if it is moving but not accelerating, it is in [...]
A: static equilibrium; dynamic equilibrium

Q: An object of uniform density applies its gravitaitonal force at [...]
A: its center of mass

Q: [...] is the energy of a macroscopic system
A: Mechanical energy

Q: Kinetic energy equation
A: K = 1/2 mv^2

Q: Equation for gravitational potential energy near earth's surface
A: U_g = mgh

Q: Equation for elastic potential energy
A: U_e = 1/2 kΔx^2

Q: Energy that is transfered between a system and its surrounds due to a difference in temperature is called [...]
A: heat (q)

Q: Equation for total change in energy
A: W + q = ΔE_total

Q: The [...] holds whenever all energy transfer in a system results only in a change to kinetic energy
A: Work-Kinetic Energy Theorem

Q: Work equation
A: W = Fdcos(theta) = ΔK + ΔU

Q: The sign conventions for work state that whenever work is done on a system the sign is [...], whenever a system does work the sign is [...]
A: positive; negative

Q: Power equation
A: P = W / t = ΔE / t

Q: The unit for power
A: Watts, J/s

Q: Instantaneous power due to a force
A: P = F v cos(theta)

Q: The total work done by a conservative force like Hooke's law or gravitation is [...]
A: zero

Q: Equation for force required to push something up a ramp
A: F = mg h/d

Q: Equation for work on a ramp
A: W = mgh

Q: Equation for Force on a lever
A: F = mg L_1/L_2
_
_

Q: Beta carbohydrates have the OH on the [...] as the CH_2OH group
A: same side

Q: Learning by associating specific stimuli and responses is known as [...]
A: associative learning or conditioning

Q: When a test subject develops a response to a previsouly neutral stimulus that was associated with a stimulus that already ellicited that response is know as [...]
A: classical conditioning

Q: A stimulus that produces an innate response is known as an [...] in classical conditioning
A: unconditioned stimulus

Q: The innate response to a stimulus is known as [...] in classical conditioning
A: an unconditioned response

Q: A stimulus that initially elicits no response is known as [...] in classical conditioning
A: a neutral stimulus

Q: A learned stimulus that elicits a response is known as [...] in classical conditioning
A: a conditioned stimulus

Q: The [...] is very similar to the innate response in classical conditioning
A: conditioned response

Q: The time it takes to learn a behavior or response is known as [...]
A: acquisition

Q: The reappearance of a conditioned response after a period of lessened response is known as [...]
A: spontaneous recovery

Q: The disappearance of a conditioned response is known as [...]
A: extinction

Q: Similar stimuli may also elicit a conditioned response through [...]
A: stimulus generalization

Q: Eventually, [...] may occur if a similar stimulus does not elicit a response over time
A: stimulus discrimination

Q: Associative learning where an individual becomes more or less likely to carry out a certain behavior is known as [...]
A: operant conditioning

Q: A [...] is something that increases the likelihood of a behavior
A: reinforcement

Q: A [...] is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior
A: punishment

Q: [...] is the introduction of a reinforcing stimulus after a desired behavior
A: positive reinforcement

Q: [...] is the removal of an unpleasant stimulus in response to a desired behavior
A: negative reinforcement

Q: A [...] is the introduction of a punishment after an undesired behavior
A: positive punishment

Q: A [...] is the removal of a desired thing after an undesired behavior
A: negative pushiment

Q: [...] punishments or reinforcements relate to physiological needs
A: Primary

Q: [...] reinforcements or punishments are things that require learning or social context, e.g. money
A: Secondary

Q: When a subject can escape from a negative stimulus and learns to do so is known as [...]
A: escape conditioning

Q: A learned behavior that allows a subject to avoid an unpleasant stimulus altogether is known as [...]
A: avoidance conditioning

Q: [...] is when a behavior is only reinforced occasionally instead of every time it occurs
A: Partial reinforcement

Header: Schedules of Partial Reinforcement

Q: The process of moving toward a desired response through successive reinforcing of behaviors, each more and more similar to the desired behavior, is known as [...]
A: shaping

Q: Sufficient [...] to recognize cause and effect are required for conditioning
A: cognitive processes

Q: [...] are specialized nerve cells that fire when a person is completing an action and when the person observes someone someone else completing the same action
A: Mirror neurons

Q: Feeling the emotions of others as through they are one's own are known as [...]
A: vicarious emotions

Q: Non-verbal methods animals use to communicate are known as [...]
A: animal signals

Q: [...] is all interactions taking place between members of the same species
A: social behavior

Q: The set of behaviors through which an animal gains food are [...]
A: foraging behaviors

Q: The behaviors surrounding propogation of a species throgh reproduction are known as [...]
A: mating behaviors

Q: When people or animals attempt to judge genetic qualities, overall health, and potential parenting skills of prospective mates, they are exercising [...]
A: Mate choice

Q: [...] is potentially driven by [...], where overall fitness is considered by not only an individual's progeny but also offspring of close relatives
A: Altruism; inclusive fitness

Q: The expected behavior of a person in a group situation is known as their [...]
A: role

Q: One's [...] is how one is perceived by others
A: self-presentation

Q: Consciously making behavioral choices in order to create a specific impression in the minds of others is known as [...]
A: impression management

Q: The [...] suggests that impression management takes place in all human interactions
A: dramaturgical approach

Q: One's [...] is the behavior one engages in in front of an audience, while one's [...] is the behavior they take place in without an audience
A: front stage self; back stage self

Q: [...] occurs when a group's members tend to think alike and agree just for the sake of harmony
A: Groupthink

Q: [...] occurs when the attitude of the group as a whole toward a particular issue becomes stronger than the attitudes of its individual members
A: Group polarization

Q: The tendency to perform better at tasks when one knows they are being watch is known as [...]
A: social facilitation

Q: Social facilitation applies mainly to individuals who have [...]
A: practiced a task a lot

Q: The [...] occurs when onlookers in a crowd fail to offer a person assistance because they assume someone else will help
A: bystander effect

Q: [...] occurs when members of a group decrease the pace or intensity of their own work with the intention of letting others pick up the slack
A: Social loafing

Q: [...] occurs when people lose awareness of their individuality and instead immerse themselves in the mood or activities of a crowd
A: Deindividualization

Q: The process by which people learn the customs and values of their culture is known as [...]
A: socialization

Q: [...] is learned through observational learning and operant conditioning from parents, mass media, etc.
A: socialization

Q: The tendency for individuals to change their attitudes, opinions, and behaviors to align with group norms is known as [...]
A: conformity

Q: Behavioral change made in response to command by an authority figure is known as [...]
A: obedience

Q: An individual whose behaviors defy social expectations is practicing [...]
A: deviance

Q: [...] is a negative social label that changes a person's identity by classifying the labeled person as abnormal or tainted in some respect
A: stigma

Q: The process by which an individual or a group become part of a new culture is known as [...]
A: assimilation

Q: A [...] is a culture that is shared by a smaller group of people who are also part of a larger culture but have specific cultural attributes that set them apart from the larger group
A: subculture

Q: The practice of valuing and respecting differences in culture is known as [...]
A: multiculturalism

Q: The belief that one's group is of central importance, including the tendency to judge the practices of others' groups by one's own cultural standards, is known as [...]
A: ethnocentrism

Q: The practice of trying to understand a culture on its own terms and judge a culture by its own standards is known as [...]
A: cultural relativism

Q: A group with which an individual shares identity and towards which she feels loyalty is known as an [...]
A: in-group

Q: A group with which one does not identify and toward which she may feel competition or hosility is known as an [...]
A: out-group

Q: When an individual favors the in-group and devalues the out-group they are practicing [...]
A: bias

Q: A concept about a group of people that includes the belief that all members of that group share certain characteristics is known as a [...]
A: stereotype

Q: A [...] may cause one anxiety and result in impaired performace when one is confronted with a negative stereotype about a group to which he belongs or when his performance may confirm a negative stereotype about his group
A: stereotype-threat

Q: Unfair treatment of others based on their membership in a specific social group is known as [...]
A: discrimination

Q: When social institutions employ policies that differentiate between people based on social grouping they are practicing [...]
A: institutional discrimination

Q: [...] promotes the storage of blood glucose
A: Insulin

Q: [...] promotes the use of blood glucose
A: Insulin

Q: After a meal [...] tells the body to store glucose from the intestines
A: insulin

Q: While in fasting state, [...] tells the liver to release glucose for other organs to use
A: glucagon

Q: The storage of glucose as glycogen is known as [...]
A: glycogenesis

Q: Glycogen is removed from storage through the process known as [...]
A: glycogenolysis

Q: Glucose is broken down through [...]
A: glycolysis

Q: Glucose is broken down into [...]
A: pyruvate

Q: Glycolysis happens [...] oxygen
A: with or without

Q: During the first half of glycolysis, two [...] are added to glucose
A: phosphates from ATP

Q: During the first half of glycolysis, glucose is split into [...]
A: two 3-carbon molecules

Q: In the second half of glycolysis, [...] ATPs are released per molecule of pyruvate created
A: 2

Q: In the second half of glycolysis, [...] NADH molecules are created
A: 2

Q: [...] is metabolism in the absence of oxygen, aka anaerobic respiration
A: Fermentation

Q: In fermentation, pyruvate is reduced into either [...]
A: ethanol or lactic acid

Q: Fermentation oxidises [...] to be used in glycolysis
A: NADH into NAD+

Q: In fermentation, only [...] are produced per glucose molecule
A: 2 ATPs

Q: The [...] produces NADPH and 5 carbon sugars like ribose
A: pentose phosphate pathway

Q: The pentose phosphate pathway most commonly occurs in tissues involved in [...] like the liver and adipocytes
A: lipid synthesis

Q: The metabolic [...] is constitutively active
A: pentose phosphate pathway

Q: NADPH inhibits the [...] pathway
A: pentose phosphate

Q: [...] cells can create glucose from proteins and lactic acid through [...]
A: Liver; gluconeogenesis

Q: Glycogen is formed from glucose with [...] bonds
A: alpha-1,4' glycosidic

Q: The primary substrate for glycogenesis is [...]
A: glucose 6-phosphate from glycolysis

Q: In fasting state, the liver begins [...] and [...] to maintain [...] levels long after eating
A: gluconeogenesis; glycogenolysis; blood glucose

Q: Gluconeogenesis requires molecules with a [...] backbone like [...] and [...]
A: 3 carbon; lactic acid; glycerol from triglycerides

Q: Fatty acids can be metabolized by any organ they diffuse into via [...]
A: beta-oxidation

Header: Central Role of Glucose 6-Phosphate

Q: Fatty acids can be converted into [...] through [...] in the liver
A: ketone bodies; ketogenesis

Q: Fatty acids are freed from [...] in the fasting state
A: adipocytes

Q: Fatty acids travel through the bloodstream via [...]
A: lipoproteins

Q: At the start of beta-oxidation, fatty acids are converted into [...] at the expense of [...] in the [...]
A: acyl-CoA; 1 ATP; outer membrane of the mitochondria

Q: For each pair of carbons cleaved off of [...], one molecule of [...] and [...] are produced
A: acyl-CoA; FADH2; NADH

Q: The output molecule of beta-oxidation is [...]
A: acetyl-CoA

Q: Ketogenesis takes place in the [...] of [...]
A: mitochondria; liver cells

Q: Lipids need to be carried by lipoproteins because [...]
A: they are insoluable in the bloodstream

Q: Because there can be too much acetyl-CoA available right after eating, in the presence of [...], the liver converts it into [...]
A: insulin; fatty acids

Q: In a starvation state, with low [...], excess acetyl-CoA is used up in [...]
A: insulin; ketogenesis

Q: In a fasting state, triglycerides are broken down by the enzyme [...]
A: lipase

Q: [...] is the process of protein formation
A: Anabolism

Q: [...] is the process of protein breakdown
A: Catabolism

Q: The enzymes trypsin, chymotrypsin, and carboxypeptidase [...]
A: cleave proteins

Q: Cleaved amino acids are absorbed by [...]
A: intestine epithelial cells

Q: Amino acids are broken down and eventually converted into [...]
A: urea

Q: The production of ATP by the transfer of a phosphate molecule from a molecule to an ADP, as in glycolysis, is called [...]
A: substrate-level phosphorylation

Q: The [...] group of ketone bodies allow them to dissolve in the bloodstream without gaining charge, which allows them to [...]
A: carbonyl; easily cross the cell membrane

Q: Blood glucose only comes from the [...]
A: intestines and liver

Q: Red blood cells and brain are the two things that [...]
A: always require glucose

Q: Most organs use [...] for energy when glucose is coming from the liver
A: fatty acids

Q: [...] is released by the pancreas in response to rising [...]
A: Insulin; blood glucose levels

Insulin promotes:
- glycolysis in all tissues
- glycogenesis in muscles and the liver
- fatty acid synthesis in the liver
- fatty acid storage in adipocytes

Q: [...] is released from the pancreas in response to decreased blood glucose levels
A: Glucagon

Glucagon promotes:
- glycogenolysis in the liver and muscles
- gluconeogenesis in the liver
- fatty acid release in adipocytes
- beta-oxidation in almost all tissues

Q: The absence of [...] in late starvation promotes [...]
A: insulin; ketogenesis

Q: [...] is a hormone released in response to stress that promotes glycogenolysis
A: Epinephrine

Q: [...] is a hormone that is released in response to stress that promotes gluconeogenesis
A: Cortisol

Q: Insulin, glucagon, and epinephrine have receptors located [...] because they are [...]
A: on the outside of the cell; hydrophilic

Q: Cortisol receptors are located [...] because it is a [...]
A: in the nucleus; hydrophobic glucocorticoid

Q: Insulin and glucagon exert control over enzymes using [...]
A: reversible phosphorlyation

Q: [...] and [...] increase synthesis of glucose 6-phosphatase, the last enzyme of [...]
A: Glucagon; cortisol; gluconeogenesis

Q: Right after eating, the main source of glucose is coming from [...]
A: the intestines

Q: Right after eating, all organs carry out [...], [...], and the [...]
A: glycolysis; the citric acid cycle; electron transport chain

Q: Right after eating, carbohydrates and lipids are [...]
A: stored as glycogen and triglycerides

Q: In a fasting state, the liver [...]
A: creates glucose for other organs through glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

Q: A long time after eating, the brain and red blood cells are performing [...]
A: glycolysis because they require glucose

Q: A long time after eating, adipocytes [...] for all other organs to use in [...]
A: release fatty acids; beta-oxidation

Q: 8-12 hours after eating, the liver [...] which can be used by everything except [...]
A: creates ketone bodies; red blood cells

Q: Red blood cells do not produce CO2 because [...]
A: they do not have mitochondria

Q: [...] are not used in gluconeogenesis because they are only metabolized to acetyl-CoA
A: Even-chained fatty acids

Q: The [...] is anabolism and provides substrates for [...].
A: pentose phosphate pathway; nucleic acid synthesis

Q: Acetyl-CoA from the oxidation of fatty acids can be used in the [...]
A: citric acid cycle

The rate limiting step of glycolysis turns F6P into F1,6BP with the enzyme phosphofructokinase-1 with cosubstrate ATP -> ADP

The steps of glycolysis are:
1. Glucose -> G6P, with Hexokinase, a transferase, and ATP->ADP
2. G6P -> F6P, with an isomerase
3. F6P  -> F1,6BP, with Phosphofructokinase-1, a transferase, and ATP->ADP
4. F1,6BP -> GADP + DHAP, with a lyase
5. DHAP -> GADP, with an isomerase
6. GADP -> 1,3BPG, with an oxioreductase, and NAD^+->NADH
7. 1,3BPG -> 3PG, with a transferase, and ADP->ATP
8. 3PG -> 2PG, with a mutase
9. 2PG -> PEP, with a lyase
10. PEP -> pyruvate, with a transferase, and ADP->ATP
Extra: Goodness Gracious, Father Franklin Didn't Go Buy Perfect Pumpkins to Prepare Pies

Q: Can I Keep Selling Sex For Money Officer
A: Citrate -> Isocitrate -> alpha-ketogluterate -> Succinyl-CoA -> Succinate -> Fumarate -> Malate -> Oxaloacetate

Q: Starting at isocitrate -> alpha-ketoglutarate step, how are NADH/FADH2/ATP produced in krebs cycle?
A: NADH, NADH, GTP (ATP equiv.), FADH, water, NADH

Q: The three enzymes of the krebs cycle that aren't reactant*-dehydrogenase are [...],
[...], and
[...]
A: fumarase; Citrate synthase; Succinyl-CoA synthase

Q: Pyruvate gets oxidized into [...], creating [...] as a byproduct, in one of the first steps of the citric acid cycle
A: acetyl-CoA; NADH

Q: For each acetyl-CoA molecule that enters the citric acid cycle, [...] NADH, [...] ATP, and [...] FADH2 molecules are produced
A: 3; 1; 1

Q: If there is no oxygen, the citric acid cycle cannot function because [...]
A: the electron transport chain is not functioning to replenish NAD+

Q: [...] and [...] are the immediate carriers in the electron transport chain
A: Ubiquinone; Cytochromes

Q: The electron transport chain takes electrons from [...] and ultimately uses them to reduce [...] into [...]
A: NADH; O2; H20

In the electron transport chain, protons are pumped into the mitochondrial intermebrane space as electrons are moved along, which is known as the proton-motive force

Q: As protons in the electron transport chain diffuse back inside the mitochondrial matrix, they turn [...], which creates ATP from ADP using [...]
A: ATP synthase; chemiosmotic coupling

Q: [...] is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain
A: Oxygen

Q: Aerobic respiration produces a net of [...] ATP, with [...] required to move [...] into the mitochondrion
A: 36; 2; NADH

Q: Obesity is associated with a deficiency or lack of response to [...], which is a hormone that interacts with the hypothalamus to produce the feeling of fullness
A: leptin

Pyruvate (pyruvic acid) structure

Q: Alanine
A: Ala, A

Q: One letter for Alanine
A: A

Q: One letter for Arginine
A: R

Q: One letter for Asparagine
A: N

Q: One letter for Aspartic Acid
A: D

Q: One letter for Cysteine
A: C

Q: One letter for Glutamic acid
A: E

Q: One letter for Glutamine
A: Q

Q: One letter for Glycine
A: G

Q: One letter for histidine
A: H

Q: One letter for Isoleucine
A: I

Q: One letter for Leucine
A: L

Q: One letter for Lysine
A: K

Q: One letter for Methionine
A: M

Q: One letter for Phenylalanine
A: F

Q: One letter for Proline
A: P

Q: One letter for Serine
A: S

Q: One letter for Threonine
A: T

Q: One letter for Tryptophan
A: W

Q: One letter for Tyrosine
A: Y

Q: One letter for Valine
A: V

Glycine structure

Alanine structure

Serine structure

Threonine structure

Cysteine structure

Valine structure

Leucine structure

Isoleucine structure

Methionine structure

Proline structure

Phenylalanine structure

Tyrosine structure

Tryptophan structure

Aspartic acid structure

Glutamic acid structure

Asparagine structure

Glutamine structure

Histidine structure

Lysine structure

Q: Arginine structure
A: guanidinium group

Q: A [...] compensates for changes before they occur
A: feed forward system

Q: At the organismal level, homeostasis incorporates the concept of [...]: on an organismal level, input must match output
A: balance

Q: Gap junctions are a form of [...] intercellular communication
A: direct contact

Q: When a cell releases a chemical into the interstitial fluid to influence cells within a localized area of diffusion, it is performing [...] intercellular communication
A: paracrine

Q: Intercellular communication where a chemical messenger is distributed to the entire body by way of the blood stream
A: endocrine

Q: chemically-mediated transmission between neurons or neurons and their effector targets
A: neurocrine communication

Q: Eicosanoids are common [...] messenger molecules
A: paracrine

Q: [...] molecules bind and produce a response on a receptor
A: Agonist

Q: [...] molecules bind and prevent a response on a receptor
A: Antagonist

Q: A receptor is [...] when more receptor proteins are present and produce more response
A: up-regulated

Q: A receptor is [...] when fewer receptor proteins are present and produce less response
A: down-regulated

Q: G-protein coupled receptors can have great influence because their effect is [...] by the target of the [...]
A: amplified; G-protein

Q: The components of a negative feedback system are the [...], the [...], and the [...]
A: sensor unit; evaluator; effector unit

Q: Endocrine messaging is set apart from other forms of intercellular communication by its use of [...]
A: the bloodstream to carry hormones

Q: Endocrine signals differ from neurocrine signals in duration by being [...]
A: slower and longer lasting

Peptide hormones are synthesized as larger protein prehormones, packaged into vesicles, where they are cleaved, and released by exocytosis, to act on membrane-bound receptors

Q: The biosynthetic precusor to steroid hormones is [...]
A: cholesterol

Q: The three kinds of steroid hormones are [...], [...], and [...]
A: mineralocorticoid; glucocorticoids; sex steroids

Q: Amino acid hormones are derivatives of the amino acid [...]
A: tyrosine

Q: Two types of amino acid hormones are [...] and [...]
A: thyroid hormones; catecholamines

Q: Steroid hormones are secreted [...]
A: as they are synthesized

Q: The thyroid hormones are [...], while the catecholamines are [...]
A: lipid soluable; hydrophilic

Header: Hormone lifecycle

Q: Ka * Kb = [...]
A: 1.0e-14

Q: In a buffer solution with concentration of acid equal to that of base, pH = [...]
A: pka

Header: Common Polyatomic Ions

Q: mnemonic for TCA
A: Can I Keep Selling Sex For Money Officer

Q: A potential change of variable amplitude and duration that is conducted decrementally; it has no threshold or refractory period
A: Graded potential

Q: The voltage difference across a membrane that produces a flux of a given ion species that is equal but opposite to the flux due to the concentration gradient of that same ion species
A: Equilibrium Potential

Q: [...] and [...] concentrations are high outside of neurons
A: Na+; Cl-

Q: [...] concentration is high inside of neurons at rest
A: K+

Q: Myelin is composed of [...]
A: many phospholipid membranes

Header: Myelin structure

Header: neuron structure

Q: When K+ channels are opened, the neuron becomes [...]
A: hyperpolarized

Q: When Na+ channels are open, the neuron becomes [...]
A: depolarized

Q: Graded potentials often happen at [...] due to [...]
A: dendrites; receptor channels opening

Q: Once the membrane potential becomes positive, Na+ channels enter the [...] conformation
A: blocked

Q: An action potential is a [...] signal
A: conduction

Header: Graded potential vs action potential

Header: Thyroid hormones

Header: Posterior pituitary hormone release

Header: Anterior pituitary hormone release

Q: The posterior pituitary releases [...]
A: oxytocin and vasopressin

The Hypothalamus releases TRH that releases TSH in the Anterior pituitary that causes the thyroid gland to release thyroid hormones which target many tissues

The hypothalamus releases CRH that causes the anterior pituitary to release ACTH that targets the adrenal cortex which releases cortisol

The hypothalamus releases GHRH that causes the anterior pituitary to release GH that targets the liver which releases insulin-like growth factors

Q: The hypothalamus releases [...] that inhibits the release of [...], which targets breast tissue, from the anterior pituitary
A: Dopamine; prolactin

Q: The hypothalamus releases [not dopamine but] that inhibits the release of [...] from the anterior pituitary.
A: Somatostatin; GH

6 major regulatory aspects of the endocrine system
1. Regulation of metabolism, water and ions
2. Response to stress the perturbation of homeostasis
3. Smooth, sequetial growth and development
4. Reproduction
5. maintenance of blood cells
6. integration with the Autonomic nervous system in control of physiological systems

Q: How did they used to test the endocrine system?
A: Remove a gland and see what happens, then replace the chemicals from the gland

Q: Peptide hormones are made [when] and released via [...] and have a [...] half-life
A: in advance; exocytosis; short

Q: Insulin and parathyroid hormone are examples of [...] hormones
A: peptide

Q: Estrogen, androgens, and cortisol are examples of [...] hormones
A: steroid

Q: Steroid hormones have a [...] half-life
A: long

Q: The amine hormones are made [...]
A: in advance

Q: The amine hormones are derivatives of [...]
A: tyrosine

Q: The thyroid hormones have a [...] half-life
A: long

Q: The peptide preprohormones have a [...] that tells them to be put into a vesicle
A: signal sequence

Q: The peptide hormones act on receptors [...]
A: outside of the cell

Q: Aldosterone is the main hormone for [...]
A: Na+ and K+ homeostasis

Q: Although steroid hormones can [...] into any cell, they act only on cells that [...]
A: diffuse; express their receptor in the cell

Q: Steroid hormones act slowly because they cause [...] which are slow
A: transcription changes

Q: The thyroid hormones are released via [...]
A: cleavage from thyroglobulin

Q: [hormones] and [...] are both released via [...]
A: Peptide hormones; catecholamines; exocytosis

Hormones binding receptors act via 3 mechanisms:
1. Altering channel permeability
2. Using the second messenger system
3. Activating specific genes to create new proteins

Q: Two things mediate whether a cell will respond to the hormone: [...], and [...]
A: If it has receptors; whether the molecule is in high enough concentration

Q: Why are there two hormones that control GH release and what are they?
A: - There are two because it allows more precise control of GH levels.
- They are somatostatin, which inhibits its release, and GHRH, which stimulates its release

Header: Concentrations of ions

Header: Potassium gradiens

Q: Equilibrium potential of Na+
A: +60mV

Q: Movement of which ion causes depolarization?
A: Na+

Q: Equilibrium potential of K+
A: -90mV

Q: What causes the absolute refractory period?
A: Voltage gated Na+ channels switching to the blocked conformation once the membrane potential becomes depolarized enough

Q: What causes the relative refractory period?
A: Slowly closing K+ channels

Q: A hyperpolarizing graded potential can be caused by [...]
A: a K+ channel opening

Q: A hyperpolarizing graded potential has [...] effect
A: an inhibitory

Q: [...] transmit information into the central nervous system from receptors at their peripheral endings
A: afferent neurons

Q: [...] cell body and the long peripheral process of the axon are in the peripheral nervous system; only the short central process of the axon enters the central nervous system
A: afferent neurons

Header: Afferent, inter, and efferent neurons

Header: Nervous system overview

Q: The efferent division of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for [...]
A: visceral output

Q: Sensations of touch/pressure, temperature, pain and proprioception are [...]
A: somatic senses

Q: Sensations of blood pressure, pH, oxygen content, lung inflation, osmolarity, temperature, distention of the GI tract, and blood glucose are [...]
A: visceral senses

Q: There are [...] pairs of spinal nerves
A: 31

Header: Vertebral anatomy

Header: Spinal nerves

Header: Spinal nerves body part control

Q: Unlike spinal nerves, some [...] are [...]
A: cranial nerves; purely sensory, purely motor, or mixed

Q: The [...] of the spinal cord contains [...]
A: gray matter; a high number of neuronal bodies and dendrites

Header: Spinal cord neurons

Header: Spinal reflex diagram

Q: The [...] of [...] neurons are located in [...]
A: cell bodies; sensory; the dorsal root ganglion

Header: Knee jerk reflex

Q: For you to become aware of something it must reach [...]
A: the cereberal cortex

Header: Brain stem anatomy

Q: Sensory neurons project through the [brain structure]
A: thalamus

Header: Diencephalon anatomy

Header: Lateral brain view

Header: Functions of the cerebrum

Q: The [...] releases the [...] homones
A: adrenal medulla; catecholamine

Q: The hypothalamus activates [...] by controlling [...] and [...]
A: the sympathetic nervous system; catecholamine release from the adrenal medulla; maintaining blood glucose concentrations through effects on the pancreas

Q: The hypothalamus maintains [...] through [...]
A: body temperature; stimulating shivering and sweating

Q: The hypothalmus controls [...] by [...] behavior and stimulating the secretion of [...]
A: body osmolarity; motivating thirst and drinking; vasopressin

Q: The hypothalamus influences cardiovascular function through the [brain structure]
A: medulla oblongata

Header: Hypothalmus -> Anterior Pituitary

Q: The [...] is the portion of the nervous system that innervates [...] and [...]
A: ANS; visceral tissues; organs

Q: The [...] innervates all [...], except [...]
A: ANS; effector tissues; skeletal muscle

Q: The [...] nerves originate in the [...] levels of the spinal cord
A: sympathetic; thoracolumbar

Q: The [...] nerves originate in the [...] region of the spinal cord
A: parasympathetic; craniosacral

Q: The [...] are only innervated by the [...]
A: kidney, spleen, and blood vessels; Sympathetic NS

Header: Functions of the SNS and PSNS

Q: With [...] so close to their effectors, the [...] signals can be influenced by [...]
A: ganglia; PSNS; their own effectors

Q: In the ANS, the preganglionic neurons are located in [...], while the postganglionic neurons are in the [...]
A: the CNS; periphery

Header: ANS org

Q: [...] neurons are in the [...] in the [...] spinal cord
A: Sympathetic preganglionic; intermediolateral cell column; thoracolumbar

Q: The SNS neurons leave the spinal cord [...]
A: ventrally

Q: Preganglionic SNS neurons leave the spinal cord to synapse in ganglia in the [...]
A: Sympathetic chain

Q: By far, most [...] neurons are associated with the [...], and have their cell bodies in the [...]
A: preganglionic parasympathetic; vagus nerve; medulla oblongata

Q: [...] ganglia are located [...] the [...]
A: Parasympathetic; in or near; innervated muscle or gland

Q: All [...] receptors are [...]
A: adrenergic; G-protein coupled receptors

Q: [...] are [...]
A: Nicotinic cholinergic receptors; ligand gated Na+ channels

Q: [...] are [...] or [...]
A: Muscarinic cholinergic receptors; G-protein coupled receptors; K+ channels

Q: A muscarinic receptor antagonist will
A: Reduce parasympathetic effects

Q: A ganglionic nicotinic receptor antagonist will
A: reduce SNS and PSNS activity

Q: A neuromuscular junction nicotinic receptor antagonist will
A: reduce CNS skeletal muscle innervation

Q: A beta-adrenergic receptor antagonist will
A: reduce sympathetic innervation

Q: A beta-adrenergic receptor agonist would
A: increase SNS activity at beta receptors

Q: An alpha-adrenergic receptor agonist would
A: increase SNS activity at alpha receptors

Q: A sypathomimetic, which causes norepinephrine release, would
A: increase SNS activity at everything except beta-2 receptors, which are much less sensitive to NE

Q: A physiostigmine, which blocks the breakdown of acetylcholine, would
A: increase all SNS activity because it would stimulate NE and Epi release

Q: Sensitivity of Alpha receptors to NE or Epi
A: NE > Epi

Q: Sensitivity of Beta-1 receptors to NE or Epi
A: NE = Epi

Q: Sensitivity of Beta-2 to NE or Epi
A: Epi >> NE

Q: Sensitivity of Beta-3 to NE or Epi
A: NE = Epi

Header: SNS receptors

Q: There is a resting basal tone of activity in the [...] but not in the [...]
A: ANS; Somatic nervous system

Q: The [...] of activity exists so that the signal can be [...]
A: basal level; adjusted up or down

Q: The rate of diffusion is proportional to the [...] and the [...]
A: surface area; difference in concentration

Q: [...] of water is intracellular fluid, while [...] is extracellular fluid
A: 2/3; 1/3

Q: A solution is [...] if it has [...] of nonpenetrating solutes
A: isotonic; 300 mOsm

Q: Only solutes that are [...] contribute to [...]
A: inpermeant; osmotic pressure

Q: A solution is [...] if it contains [...] of solute, regardless of membrane-penetrating and nonpenetrating solutes
A: isoosmotic; 300 mOsm

Header: Endocytosis

Q: [...] is when an [...] of a pathway acts as an inhibitor at an earlier step in the pathway
A: Short loop feedback; intermediate molecule

Q: [...] is when the [...] of a pathway acts as an inhibitor in an earlier step
A: Long loop feedback; final product

Header: Blood brain barrier

Header: feedback loops

Q: Trophic hormones are released by the [...]
A: hypothalamus

Q: GH is released by the [...]
A: anterior pituitary

Q: ACTH is released by the [...]
A: anterior pituitary

Q: TSH is released by the [...]
A: anterior pituitary

Q: FSH is released by the [...]
A: anterior pituitary

Q: LH is released by the [...]
A: anterior pituitary

Q: Calcitonin is released by the [...]
A: thyroid

Q: Atrial natriuretic peptide is released by [...]
A: the heart

Q: Angiotensinogen is released by [...]
A: the liver

Q: Insulin-like growth factors are released by [...]
A: the liver

Q: Somatostatin and pancreatic polypeptide are released by the [...]
A: Pancreas

Q: Aldosterone is released by the [...]
A: Adrenal cortex

Q: Cortisol is released by the [...]
A: adrenal cortex

Q: Androgens are released by the [...] and the [...]
A: adrenal cortex; testes

Q: Epinephrine and norepinephrine are relased by the [...]
A: adrenal medulla

Q: Erythropoietin is released by the [...]
A: Kidney

Q: Inhibin is released by the [...] and [...]
A: testes; ovaries

Q: Estrogen and progesterone are released by the [...]
A: ovaries

Q: Leptin, adiponectin, and resistin are released by [...]
A: adipose tissue

Q: The four classes of hormones are [...]
A: peptide, steroid, catecholamines, and thyroid hormones

Q: [...] occurs when a [...] to resolve a [...]
A: Illness; compensation fails; change in homeostasis

Q: The 4 general cell types are [...]
A: epithelial, connective, neural, and muslce

Q: The [...] the molecule, the [...] it moves
A: smaller; faster

Q: A molecule will diffuse more quickly in [...] than [...]
A: air; liquid

Header: Lumen stuff

Q: Glucose needs [...] transport with [...] to cross the epithelial lining
A: secondary active; Na+

Q: Growth hormone targets the liver for [...] and many tissues for [...]
A: growth factor secretion; growth & metabolism

Q: ACTH targets the [...] for [...]
A: Adrenal cortex; cortisol release

Q: TSH targets the [...] for [...]
A: thyroid; thyroid hormone synthesis

Q: THyroid hormones target [...] for [...]
A: many tissues; metabolism, growth, and development

Q: Atrial natriuretic peptide targets the [...] to [...]
A: kidneys; increase Na+ excretion

Q: Angiotensinogen targets the [...] to [...]
A: adrenal cortex and blood vessels; secrete aldosterone and increase blood pressure

Q: Erythropoietin targets [...] for [...]
A: bone marrow; red blood cell production

Q: calciferol targets the [...] to [...]
A: intestines; increase calcium absorption

Q: Emotions can affect physiology because [...]
A: the limbic system is integrated with the hypothalamus and  can trigger physiological responses to stress

Q: The [...] is the relay station between the [...] and coordinates [...]
A: Pons; cerebrum and cerebellum; breathing

Q: The [...] in the brain stem [...]
A: medulla oblongata; involuntary functions

Q: The [...] is responsible for [...]
A: pineal gland; melatonin secretion

Q: There are [...] of fluid in the body
A: 42L

Q: Calcium is an important [...] through its interactions with [...]
A: second messanger; calmodulin

Q: [...] fibers are small and lack [...]
A: Smooth muscle; striations

Header: Muscle Terminology

Header: Muscle anatomy

Header: Muscle fiber

Header: Muscle fiber anatomy

Header: Actin and Myosin

Q: The [...] and [...] both [...] during contraction
A: I-band; H-zone; shorten

Q: During contraction, the [...] get pulled closer towards each other
A: Z-lines

Q: ATP binding with [...] causes it to [...] from [...]
A: myosin; dissociate; actin

Q: When [...] has not bound myosin, it is stuck in the [...] state
A: ATP; rigor

Q: The release of [...] starts the [...]
A: Pi; power stroke

Q: Once the [...] is complete, [...] dissociates from the myosin
A: power stroke; ADP

Q: The [...] is transfered through the [...] in the sacromere
A: action potential; T-tubules

Header: myosin binding in relaxed state

Q: Muscle fiber does not have a [...] because its [...] already near [...]
A: hyperpolarization period; membrane potential; K+'s equilibrium potential

Header: what happens when there's an action potential

Header: Complete contraction picture

Q: A neuronal action potential [...] creates a muscle action potential in the muscle it innervates
A: always

Header: Relationship between action potential and contraction

Q: A [...] is a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates
A: motor unit

Q: Each muscle fiber is innervated by [...], though a single motor neuron may innervate [...]
A: only a single motor neuron; many muscle fibers

Q: The immediate source of ATP during contraction is [...]
A: free ATP in the muscle cell

Q: The second source of ATP during muscle contraction is [...]
A: ATP from creatine-phosphate

Q: The third source of ATP during contraction is [...]
A: ATP from metabolism

Q: While muscle is relaxed, ATP is used to [...]
A: restore the calcium stores of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

Q: While the muscle is contracting, ATP is used to [...]
A: drive myosin ATPase

Q: In [...] contraction, the muscle [...] and [...]
A: isotonic; moves the load; shortens

Q: In [...] contraction, the muscle [...] and [...]
A: isometric; cannot move the load; does not shorten

Q: In [...] contraction, the muscle [...] as it [...]
A: lengthening; lengthens; cannot prevent the load from moving

Q: A motor neuron innervates [...] type of muscle fiber
A: only one

Header: muscle fatigue

Header: different fiber types

Q: [...] muscle fibers' [...]
A: Fast-glycolytic; myosin quickly cleaves ATP

Q: [...] muscle fibers [...]
A: Fast-oxidative; provide ATP from oxidative phosphorlation quickly

Q: The different muscle fiber types have different [...]
A: thresholds for recruitment

Q: The dense bodies in smooth muscle resemble the [...] in striated muscle
A: z-lines

Header: fiber recruitment

Header: smooth muscle

Q: In [...], calcium comes from [...]
A: smooth muscle; ECF and the sarcoplasmic reticulum

Header: smooth muscle contraction

Q: In smooth muscle, [...] regulates [...] ability to bind [...]
A: caldesmon; actin's; myosin

Header: smooth muscle relaxation

Header: skeletal and smooth muscle differences

Q: [...] can maintain contraction with minimal expenditure of energy via [...]
A: Smooth muscle; the “latch mechanism”

Q: More than one factor can affect whether [...] muscle contracts
A: smooth

Q: Blood is about [...] [...]
A: 45%; hemocrit

Header: things that cause smooth muscle contraction

Header: different types of smooth muscle cells

Q: The concentration of [...] in blood is about [...]
A: hemoglobin; 15g/dL

Q: The concentration of RBCS in the bloodstream is [...]
A: 5 million / microliter

Q: There are [...] of WBCs per microliter in the bloodstream
A: thousands

Q: The total blood volume is about [...]
A: 5.5L

Q: Blood plasma is very similar in composition to [...]
A: interstitial fluid

Q: Plasma is made up of about [...] proteins
A: 7%

Q: The difference between serum and plasma is that [...] [...]
A: serum; lacks clotting factors

Q: Erythrocytes are about [...] in diameter
A: 7 microns

Q: Red blood cells are shaped the way they are for [...]
A: optimal diffusion of gases through capillary walls

Q: The [...] senses [...]
A: Kidney; oxygen carrying capacity

Q: [...] stimulates [...] development in the [...]
A: Erythropoietin; red blood cell; bone marrow

Q: [...] isomers differ in [...]
A: Structural; connectivity

Header: vsepr shapes

Q: Something is [...] if it is not [...] on its mirror image
A: chiral; superimposable

Q: [...] are isomers that differ in the [...]
A: Steroisomers; 3D arrangement of atoms

Q: [...] are stereoisomers that are [...]
A: Enantiomers; non-superimposable mirror images

Q: Given n chiral centers, there are [...] possible stereoisomers
A: 2^n

Q: + specific rotation means a molecule is [...]
A: dextrorotary

Q: Achiral compounds [...] optically active
A: are not

Q: [...] have [...] configurations at [...] chirality centers
A: Enantiomers; opposite; all

Q: [...] have [...] configurations at [...] chirality centers
A: Diastereomers; opposite; some, but not all

Q: [...] are non-superimposable non-mirror images
A: Diastereomers

Q: The three butane conformations are [...], [...], and [...]
A: anti; eclipsed; gauche

Q: A [...] compound is a molecule with [...] that is [...].
A: meso; multiple stereocenters; superimposable on its
mirror image

Q: Meso compounds are optically [...]
A: inactive

Q: [...] compounds are [...], because they are [...]
A: Meso; achiral; superimposable on their mirror image

Q: The stereocenters across the mirror plane in a meso compound must have [...]
A: opposite configurations

Q: Cis-trans isomers can exist on compounds with [...] or [...]
A: double bonds; rings

Q: Two isomers are [...] if no [...] takes place.
A: resolvable; interconversion

Header: chair cyclohexane substitution

A chiral resolving reagent is a chiral auxiliary used to convert a mixture of enantiomers into diastereomers in order to analyze the quantities of each present within the mix

Q: [...], unlike enantiomers, do not have same [...]
A: Diastereomers; physical properties

Q: In fischer projections, horizontal lines represent bonds [...] and vertical lines represent bonds [...]
A: coming out of the plane of the paper; going behind the plane of the paper

Header: Initiation of contraction

Q: [...] is a reduced count of [...] or [...] in the blood
A: Anemia; RBCs; hemoglobin

Q: Iron deficiency is a common cause of [...]
A: anemia

Q: Red and white blood cells are both synthesized in the [...]
A: bone marrow

Q: [...] are larger than [...]
A: Leukocytes; erythrocytes

Header: cardiovascular system

Q: Flow rate = [...]
A: pressure gradient / resistance

Q: Flow resistance is proportional to [...] and inversely proportional to [...]
A: viscosity and length; radius to the 4th power

Q: The larger the [...] of the vessel the [...] the flow velocity
A: cross sectional diameter; slower

Q: The resistance in the [...] circulation is [...] than the resistance in the [...] circulation
A: pulmonary; less; systemic

Q: The left side of the heart is [...] than the right to make up for [...]
A: stronger; increased resistance in the systemic circulation

Header: heart anatomy

Q: The [...] is unique because [...]
A: left AV valve; it only has two leaflets

Q: The heart valves function completely [...]
A: passively

Q: All cardiac muscle cells are connected by [...]
A: gap junctions

Header: cardiac muscle

Header: conducting system of the heart

Q: Cardiac muscle must not have [...] contractions
A: tetanic

Q: [...] uses [...] to activate [...]
A: smooth muscle; MLCK; myosin

Q: In chromatography, the solvent is known as the [...]
A: mobile phase

Q: [...] separates compounds based on their [...]
A: Gas chromatography; boiling points

Q: To calculate the retention factor for thin layer chromatrography, divide [...]
A: distance moved by the solute, by the distance the solvent moved

Q: When reading a gas chromatogram, the first peak is [...]
A: the solvent peak

Q: [...] go further in gel electrophoresis
A: Smaller DNAs or proteins

Q: [...] uses a chiral stationary phase to separate enantiomers
A: Chiral column chromatorgraphy

Q: The [...] are nucleotides with [...]
A: purines; 2 rings

Q: The [...] group in DNA is attached at the [...]
A: phosphate; 5' carbon

Q: [...] is also known as [...]
A: Base promoted ester hydrolysis; saponification

Q: Saponification mechanism
A: What is this?

Q: pKa of histidine
A: 6.5

Q: pKa of amino acid amine group
A: ~10

Q: pKa of amino acid carboxylic acid group
A: ~2

Q: pKa of arginine side chain
A: 12.48 (basic)

Q: pKa of Aspartic Acid's side chain
A: 3.86 (protenated only in acid)

Q: pKa of Cysteine's side chain
A: 8.00 (protenated at physiological pH)

Q: pKa of lysine's sidechain
A: 10.5 (deprotenated at physiological pH)

Q: pKa of Tyrosine's sidechain
A: 10 (protonated at physiological pH)

Q: When pH is [...] than pKa a group is in its [...] form
A: less; protonated

Q: When pH is greater that pKa, a group is in its [...]
A: deprotonated form

Q: [...] and [...] both disrupt alpha helixes
A: proline; glycine

Q: Redox reaction mnemonic
A: OIL RIG

Q: The [...] of a molecule is the [...]
A: isoelectric point; point along the pH scale where the molecule exists in a neutral form

Q: A [...] is a molecule that has [...]
A: zwitterion; both positive and negative charges

Hemiacetal structure

Ketal structure

Q: The [...] of 2 glucose molecules, changes it from a [...] into an [...]
A: glycosidic linkage; hemiacetal; acetal

Q: The beta form of glucose has the C1 hydroxyl [...] to C6
A: cis

Q: The alpha anomer of glucose has the C1 hydroxyl [...] to C6, and C1 is in the [...] position
A: trans; axial

Q: A carbocation is more likely to form at [...] pH
A: an acidic

Header: keto enol tontomerizatron

Q: A reducing sugar is any sugar with a [...]
A: ketone or aldehyde group capable of being a reducing agent

Q: Sucrose only exists as a [...] because [...]
A: disaccahride; it has full acetal on both sugars so it cannot be elongated

Q: Enolate anion structure
A: What is this?

Q: Aldehydes are [...] acidic than ketones
A: more

Q: Using a [...] would favor formation of the [...] enolate over the [...] one
A: bulky base at low temperature; kinetic; thermodynamic

Q: [...] more readily form [...] than [...] because they are more reactive
A: Aldehydes; hydrates; ketones

Formation of hydrates reaction

Q: Substituting the alpha carbon in a ketone makes the carbonyl carbon [...]
A: more electrophilic

Header: Hemiacetal formation

Q: Glycolysis mnemonic
A: Goodness Gracious, Father Franklin Didn't Go Buy Perfect Pumpkins to Prepare Pies

Header: different amine groups

Q: To revert any imine reaction, add an excess of [...] to [...] the imine
A: water; hydrolyze

Header: Grignard reaction

Header: nucelophilic attack of carbonyl

Q: LiAlH4 and NaBH4 are common [...]
A: reducing agents

Q: NaBH4 is different from LiAlH4 because it [...]
A: only reduces ketones and aldehydes

Q: Na2Cr2O7 is a common [...]
A: oxidizing agent

Q: Tollen's reagent is more selective than Na2Cr2O7 because [...]
A: it won't oxidize alcohols, only aldehydes and ketones

Q: Alkoxides are formed when an [...] reacts with a [...]
A: alcohol; strong base

Q: [...] is a reactant in the reaction that oxidizes alcohols in the body
A: NAD+

Q: When using the [...] [...] are oxidized to [...]
A: Jones reagent; primary alcohols; carboxylic acids

Q: If you want to oxidize a [...] into an [...], you use [...]
A: primary alcohol; aldehyde; PCC

Q: An important reason to form [...] from alcohols is because they are [...]
A: mesylates and tosylates; excellent leaving groups

Q: An SN2 reaction [...] the configuration of the carbon it attacks
A: flips

Q: TBDMSCl serves as a [...] for [...]
A: protecting group; alcohols

Q: [...] binds with [...] in smooth muscle to prevent it from binding with myosin
A: Caldesmon; actin

Q: In smooth muscle, whenever [...] is phosphorylated, actin is free to bind
A: caldesmon

Q: In [...], calcium binds to [...]
A: smooth muscle; calmodulin

Q: In order for smooth muscle to relax, [...] must dephosphorylate myosin
A: myosin phosphatase

Q: Blood plasmas composition is similar to [...]
A: interstitial fluid

Q: Erythrocytes lack [...] in their mature state
A: ribosomes and nuclei

Q: Fluid velocity is [...] to [...]
A: inversely proportional; total cross sectional area

Q: Pulmonary resistance is [...] than systemic resistance
A: lower

Q: The refractory period for cardiac muscle lasts about [...]
A: 250ms

Q: The cardiac cycle takes about [...]
A: 850ms

Header: Cardiac muscle action potential

Q: Papillary muscles just [...]
A: prevent the valves from opening too far

Q: The heart's action potential begins in the [...]
A: SA node

Q: The AV node exists to [...]
A: delay contraction so that the ventricles are full when they contract

Q: When the cardiac action potential reaches a cardiac muscle cell, its [...] open
A: calcium channels

Q: Whenever [...] enters a cardiac muscle cell, it triggers the [...] through the [...]
A: calcium; release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum; ryanodine receptor

Q: Calcium leaves the cardiac muscle cell via [...]
A: secondary transport with Na+

Q: The [...] maintains sodium levels in cardiac muscle cells
A: sodium potassium pump

Header: SA node pacemaker cells

Q: Left alone, an SA node cell will generate approximately [...]
A: 100 AP/min

Q: [...] electrically link the [...]
A: Internodal pathways; SA and AV nodes

Header: Comparison of AP in skeletal cardiac and pacemaker cells

Header: EKG

Header: Cardiac cycle flow

Q: Stroke volume = [...]
A: EDV - ESV

Q: During [...], the [...] is less than [...]
A: isovolumetric contraction; P-ventricles; P-aorta

Q: End systolic volume is about [...]
A: 65 mL

Q: End diastolic volume is about [...]
A: 135 mL

During isovolumetric relaxation, P-ventricles is still greater than P-atria, so no filling occurs

Q: Cardiac output = [...]
A: Heart Rate x Stroke Volume

Q: Cardiac output at rest is about [...]
A: 5L / minute

Q: Heart rate is primarily controlled by [...] of the [...]
A: sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation; SA node

Q: Force of cardiac muscle contraction is controlled by [...]
A: sympathetic innervation of the ventricular muscle

Q: Ventricular filling is driven by [...] then aided by [...]
A: venous pressure; atrial contraction

Q: Heart sounds are caused by the [...]
A: closing of the AV valves, then the arterial valves

Q: At rest the [...] nervous system tone to the SA node is high
A: parasympathetic

Q: End diastolic volume is determined by [...]
A: filling pressure

Q: The Starling law of the heart states that [...]
A: stroke volume increases with EDV

Q: End systolic volume is a function of [...], which is controlled by the [...]
A: cardiac contractility; sympathetic NS

Q: Pulmonary circulation is charcterized by [...]
A: low pressures and high flow

Q: The pressure of the pulmonary circulation is kept where it is to prevent [...]
A: bursting of pulmonary capillaries

Q: [...] hold each side of the [...] together
A: Desmosomes; intercalated disk

Q: Flow through a resistance causes a [...]
A: pressure drop

Q: Aortic pressure is about [...]
A: 100 mmHg

Q: Flow through any section of the CV system is [...]
A: the same

Q: Arterioles are the site of [...]
A: variable resistence

Q: The arterioles are surrounded by [...]
A: smooth muscle

Q: Metarterioles allow [...]
A: WBCs to skip capillaries where they are too big to go through

Q: Arteriovenous bypasses are like metarterioles but they [...]
A: do not branch into capillaries like metarterioles can

Q: Endothelial cells lining blood vessels can contain enzymes on their surface to [...]
A: convert hormones into their active form or degrade other signaling molecules

Q: Endothelial cells lining blood vessels can contribute to regulation of ciruculation by [...]
A: secreting substances that influence vascular smooth muscle

Q: As a result of arterial compliance, arteries serve to [...]
A: boost blood flow during diastole

Q: Pulse pressure = [...]
A: Systolic pressure - diastolic pressure

Q: Mean arterial pressure can be approximated by [...]
A: diastolic pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure

Q: Pulses only exist in the [...] because [...]
A: arteries; resistance dampens pulses

Q: The factors that influence arterial pressure are [...]
A: Flow * resistance

Q: Flow influences [...] pressure more than [...]
A: systolic; diastolic

Q: Hardening of the arteries would [...] pulse pressure because [...]
A: increase; less compliance to absorb the pressure from the flow

Header: Arterial pressure

Q: The dicrotic notch is caused by [...]
A: the pulse pressure wave reflecting off of the arterioles

Q: The factors that influence pulse pressure are [...]
A: cardiac output and arterial compliance

Q: Flow to an organ is adjusted by [...]
A: changing the resistance to that organ

Q: Smooth muscles in arteries plays [...]
A: a structural role rather than a functional one

Q: The biggest pressure drop in circulation occurs in the [...]
A: arterioles

Q: Smooth muscle surrounding the arterioles has a [...] that allows the constriction to be [...]
A: myogenic tone; modulated up and down

Active hyperemia is regulation of arteriolar constricution due to local chemical changes in interstitial fluid like decrease in oxygen or increase in CO2

Q: Arteriolar constriction is also locally regulated by [...] where [...]
A: flow autoregulation; the vessels respond to maintain flow in response to an imposed change in flow

Q: Arterioles are constricted primarily via [...] receptor mediated constriction
A: alpha-adrenergic

Q: Beta-adrenergic receptors can mediate [...] in some muscles and the liver
A: arteriolar dilation

Q: Sympathetic nerves innervating blood vessels are [activity level]
A: normally active and therefore can be modulated up or down

Q: Hormones that cause vasoconstriction include [...]
A: norepinephrine at alpha-receptors, vasopressin, and angiotensin II

Q: Hormones that cause vasodilation include [...] and [...]
A: epinephrine at beta-receptors; natriuretic peptides

Q: The major agent causing beta-receptor mediated dilation is [...] released by the [...]
A: epinephrine; adrenal medulla

Q: The major agent causing alpha-receptor mediated constriction is [...] from the [...]
A: NE; sympathetic nerves

Q: In response to an increase in tissue metabolic activity, [...] and [...]
A: more capillaries open up; arterioles dilate

Q: Capillaries are thin-walled tubes comprised of a [...]
A: single layer of endothelial cells

Q: Small molecules can [...] through capillaries' endothelial cells but larger molecules must move through [...]
A: diffuse; transcytosis aka bulk flow

Q: Diffusional spaces within capillary endothelial cells are known as [...]
A: fenestrations

Header: Transport across capillary wall

Header: Net Fluid flow across capillary wall

Header: Filtration in systemic capillaries

Q: Fluid flows in the lymph system via [...]
A: passive pressure

Q: [...] ensure proper [...] lymph fluid flow
A: Valves; unidirectional

Q: An increase in cardiac output would result in an [...] in lymph fluid flow
A: increase

Q: The lymphatic system returns fluid to the [...]
A: vena cava

Important roles of the lymphatic system include returning fluid to CV system, clearing proteins from interstitial fluid, absorbing fat in the intestines, and a role in the immune system

Q: If lymphatic drainage is compromised, [...] may occur
A: edema

Q: [...] is the accumulation of fluid in the interstitial fluid
A: Edema

Q: Things that result in [...] may cause in [...]
A: more favorable fluid movement into the interstitial fluid; edema

Q: Veins have [...] to help fight against [...]
A: valves; gravity

Q: The skeletal muscle pump is the [...]
A: movement of blood back to the heart through veins due to the contraction of skeletal muscle

Q: The [...] is the movement blood in veins due to the [...]
A: respiratory pump; force of the diaphragm on the thoracic cavity

Q: Most of the blood volume is found in [...]
A: systemic veins

Q: Some veins have smooth muscle and are controlled primarily via [...]
A: sympathetic innervation at alpha-adrenergic receptors

Q: Constriction of veins would result in an [...] in cardiac output due to [...]
A: increase; the Starling law of the heart

Q: If you donate blood, venous pressure [...] due to [...]
A: does not change; the veins compliance

Q: The [...] have a high baseline cardiac flow due to their functions in [...]
A: kidneys and liver; regulating blood composition

Q: The [...] have high baseline cardiac flow rates due to their [...]
A: brain and heart; high energy needs

Q: During exercise, the rate of blood flow increases in [...] and decreases in [...]
A: muscle; digestive organs

Q: [...] is normally kept within a relatively narrow range by a powerful [...] reflex, [...].
A: Blood pressure; negative feedback; the baroreceptor reflex

Q: The [...] sets a level of vasoconstrictor tone to each vascular bed, except the [...]
A: sympathetic nervous system; brain

Q: The brain's input to the [...] has a great effect on blood pressure
A: spinal cord

Q: The main factors of total peripheral resistance are [...]
A: ateriolar radius and blood viscosity

Q: The main factors for cardiac output are [...]
A: stroke volume and heart rate

Q: The afferents of the baroreceptor reflex are located in the [...]
A: carotid arteries and the aortic arch

A large hemorrhage would cause heart rate to increase, stroke volume to increase, veins to constrict, and arterioles to constrict which is the result of the baroreceptor reflex

Header: Baroreceptor reflex example

Header: Angiotensin

Q: The rate limiting step in [...] production is how much [...] is released into the blood
A: Angiotensin II; renin

Q: The most sensitive parameter for renin secretion is [...], followed by [...], and lastly renal [...]
A: the baroreceptor reflex; GFR; perfusion pressure

Q: There are also [...] that sense [...] in the same location as the [...]
A: chemoreceptors; O2 and CO2 levels; baroreceptors

Q: [...] is released at the neuromuscular junction
A: Acetylcholine

Q: [...] is used in oxidative muscle cells to store oxygen
A: Myoglobin

Q: [...] like other isomers have different physical and chemical properties
A: Diastereomers

Header: Alcohol tosylate formation

Header: Tosylate formation mechanism

Q: The Hunkle rule for aromaticity
A: 4n + 2 pi electrons in the ring

Q: Steric number formula
A: # sigma bonds + # lone pairs

Header: Acid chloride formation

Q: The transition metals are in periods that [...]
A: are in the middle of the periodic table

Q: Fischer esterification creates an [...] from a [...] under [...] conditions
A: ester; carboxylic acid; acidic

Q: [...] will [...] a carboxylic acid into a [...]
A: LiAlH4; reduce; primary alcohol

Q: Carboxylic acids most commonly undergo [...] at their [...]
A: nucleophilic substitution; carbonyl carbon

Q: Product(s) of glycolysis
A: 2 pyruvate
2 net ATP
2 NADH

Q: Glycolysis molecules
A: Glucose -> G6P -> F6P -> F1,6BP -> GADP + DHAP -> 1,3BPG -> 3PG -> 2PG -> PEP -> Pyruvate

Q: The halogens make [...] leaving groups because [...]
A: excellent; they are stable on their own as ions in solution

Q: Ammonia cannot form an amide from a carboxylic acid at room temperature because [...]
A: it will act as a base instead of attacking the carbonyl carbon

Gem dihalide structure

vic dihalide structure

alkoxy group structure

anhydride structure

hydrazine structure

hydrazone structure

oxime structure

Q: [...] donate electrons and are Lewis [...]
A: Nucleophiles; bases

Q: Nucleophilicity and [...] follow opposite trends
A: electronegativity

Q: The halogens [...] the periodic table are the better leaving groups due to [...]
A: further down; larger sizes being better able to stabilize the negative charge

Q: Order the nuclephilicity from best to worst: RHN-, RH2C-, RO-
A: RH2C- > RHN- > RO-

Q: Nitrogen is a better nucleophile than oxygen because [...]
A: it forms a stronger bond with carbon making it a worse leaving group

Q: Because of the properties of nucleophiles, nucleophilic reactions constantly coexist with [...]
A: acid base reactions

Q: In order for nucleophilic amines and alcohols to function, they often require a [...]
A: basic or neutral solvent

Q: Some of the best leaving groups are [...] because they [...]
A: gases; leave the solution and can't compete in a reverse reaction

Q: The best nucleophiles are typically [...]
A: strong bases

Q: [...] make alcohols more [...] by [...]
A: Electron withdrawing groups; acidic; drawing charge away from the hydrogen making it more positive

Q: [...] make alcohols more [...]
A: Electron donating groups; nucleophilic

What is the trend of alcohol acidity

Q: [...] are often the [...] for the MCAT
A: Ethers; solvent of choice

Q: [...] can be cleaved using [...]
A: Ethers; HI or HBr

Q: Carbonyls make great [...] because they have [...] and [...]
A: electrophiles; planar stereochemistry; a partial positive charge on the carbon

Formic acid structure

benzoic acid structure

Q: Carboxylic acids are strong for organic acids because [...]
A: their conjugate base is resonance stabilized

Q: Hydrolysis of [...] only occurs at [...]
A: amides; extreme temperatures with strong acids

Q: Name this structure:
A: butanoic propanoic anhydride

Q: Name this structure:
A: ethyl acetate

Q: How can we preserve esters in reactions involving alcohols?
A: Use the ester's alcohol as a solvent to prevent transesterification

Q: [...] are known as [...]
A: Intermolecular esters; lactones

Q: [...] formed in intramolecular reactions are known as [...]
A: Cyclic amides; lactams

Beta lactam structure

Q: Aldehydes and ketones undergo [...] reactions because they [...]
A: nucleophilic addition; have no leaving group

Q: In the body, [...] occurs in the [...]
A: tautomerization; bases of nucleotides

The thermodynamic enolate of 2-butanone

The kinetic enolate of 2-butanone

Q: What makes a hemiacetal different than an acetal?
A: hemiacetal still has its carbonyl oxygen in alcohol form

Q: Under basic conditions, the first step of nucleophilic addition to a ketone is [...]
A: nucleophilic attack of the carbonyl carbon

Q: Under acidic conditions, the first step of nucleophilic addition to an aldehyde is [...]
A: proton transfer to carbonyl oxygen

Q: Aldehydes can be protected from reacting by [...]
A: forming a ring acetal using ethyldiol

Q: Full acetal / ketal formations are catalzyed by [...] because [...]
A: H+; it makes the remaining OH group a better leaving group

Q: L or D glucose?
A: D glucose, last OH points to the right

Q: An [...] is a carbohydrate with [...]
A: aldose; an aldehyde

Q: A sugar with 6 carbons is known as a [...]
A: hexose

Q: [...] membered sugars are known as [...]
A: Five; furanoses

Sucrose has a 1,1 glycosidic linkage between glucose and fructose that is alpha for glucose

Q: [...] is the [...] linkage of [...] molecules
A: Maltose; alpha-1,4 glycosidic; 2 glucose

Q: The body can only breakdown [...] glycosidic linkages
A: alpha

Q: Mannose is shaped like a [...]
A: 2 finger pointy gun

Q: Ribose's OH's are all [...]
A: right

Q: [...] uses [...] to form [...]
A: Gabriel synthesis; pthalamide; amino acids

Q: Saturated fats have a [...] melting point than unsaturated fats
A: higher

Q: What is this reactant is used for?
A: Amino acid synthesis

Q: [...] and glycogen differ [...]
A: Amylopectin; in the frequency of alpha-1,6 branches

Q: [...] differs from glycogen because [...]
A: Amylose; it does not branch

Q: Antibodes can be produced by [...] in the blood
A: plasma cells

Q: Thermal expansion is [...] to the [...]
A: directly proportional; change in temperature

Q: SDS creates a [...] charge on proteins
A: negative

Q: The purpose of using SDS in SDS-PAGE is to [...]
A: allow proteins to be separated based regardless of the charge they might have

Q: Simultaneous processing of conscious emotions and physiological activation is the defining feature of the [...] theory of emotion
A: Cannon-Bard

Q: Under constant pressure, change in enthalpy = [...]
A: change in internal energy + pressure * change in volume

Q: The zeroth law of thermodynamics states that [...]
A: two systems in thermal equilibrium with a third system are in thermal equilibrium with each other

Q: Properties that describe the current state of a system are called [...]
A: state functions

Q: [...] do not change based on how the current system was reached
A: State functions

Q: [...] depend on how the current state of a system was reached
A: Path functions

Q: [...] is the transfer of energy from a set of particles with higher temperature to another
A: Heat

Q: Convection is the transfer of thermal energy [...]
A: via fluid movements

Q: The rate at which an object radiates heat depends on its [...]
A: surface area and temperature

Q: Under constant pressure the magnitude of PVwork done is [...]
A: W=P deltaV

Q: In work, the collisions of molecules are [...], while those in heat are [...]
A: directional; random

Q: With expansion, energy is transferred [...] of the system
A: out

At constant pressure, enthalpy equals:

If no PV work is done, enthalpy is equal to:

Q: The standard state of a molecule is its reference form at [...]
A: 1 atm and 25 degrees C

Q: The [...] is the enthalpy of the reaction that creates a molecule from its [...]
A: standard enthalpy of formation; raw elements at standard state

Equation to calculate the standard enthalpy of a reaction:

Q: All reactions must increase [...]
A: the entropy of the universe

Q: Gibbs free energy represents the [...] available from a reaction
A: non-PV work

Q: [...] is the transfer of random kinetic energy
A: Heat

Q: To make themselves more favorable, biological reactions are often coupled to [...]
A: ATP hydrolysis

Q: The [...] isomer of a carbohydrate has the anomeric OH on the [...] side of the CH2OH group
A: alpha; opposite

Q: Is this sugar alpha or beta?
A: Beta

Q: The enthalpy of formation of a molecule in [...] is [...]
A: reference form at standard state; 0

Q: Chemical equilibrium is the point where the [...]
A: forward reaction rate equals the rate of the reverese reaction

Q: The equilibrium point of a reaction is the point of [...]
A: greatest entropy of the universe

What is the equilibrium constant of the reaction aA + bB -> cC + dD

Q: Solids are not used in the [...] because [...]
A: Law of Mass Action; their concentrations do not chage

Q: Q is the [...] that describes a system that is [...]
A: reaction quotient; not at equilibrium

Q: If Q < K, the reaction will move to create [...] at a higher rate
A: products

To calculate the free energy of a reaction that is not a standard state, you need which equation?

Q: At equilibrium how much free energy is there with which to do work?
A: None

Q: Movement of air into and out of the lungs is known as [...]
A: ventilation

Header: respiratory system anatomy

Q: The [...] are small collapsible airways with smooth muscle walls
A: bronchioles

Q: The flow velocity inside the alveoli is [...] than the trachea because [...]
A: less; they have higher cross sectional area

Q: Mucus in the lungs is created by the [...]
A: goblet cells

Q: [...] move mucus out of the lungs
A: Cilia

Q: Cilia are located on the [...]
A: epithelial cells of the trachea and bronchi

Q: Type 1 alveolar cells handle [...]
A: gas-exchange

Q: Type II alveolar cells handle [...]
A: surfractant secretion

Header: respiratory muscles

Q: Diffusional distances between air and blood in the alveoli are less than [...]
A: 1 um

Header: Lung forces

Q: The low pressures of pulmonary circulation ensure that [...]
A: little fluid leaves the bloodstream into the interstitial fluid

Q: When there is no air flow, alveoli and atmospheric pressures are [...]
A: equal

Q: Lungs will collapse without plueral gradient due to [...]
A: elastic properties of the lungs and the surface tension in the alveoli

Q: Internal intercostal muscles and abdominals contract for [...] only
A: active expiration

Q: Elastic recoil causes [...]
A: the lungs to return to normal causing passive expiration

Q: Compliance is a measure of change in [...] for a change in [...]
A: lung volume; interplural pressure

Q: The functional residual capacity is the [...]
A: resting volume of the lungs

Q: [...] is what causes respiratory distress syndrome in newborns
A: Too high a surface tension

Q: Thicker lungs have a lower [...]
A: compliance

Q: Smaller alveoli require more surfractant due to [...]
A: higher pressures

Q: Epinephrine causes lungs to [...] due to action on the [...]
A: dilate; beta 2 receptors

Q: The inspiratory reserve volume is the [...] and is [...]mL
A: additional amount you can inhale; ~3000

Q: The [...] is the volume of gas that moves in and out as you breathe
A: tidal volume

Q: A normal tidal volume is around [...]
A: 500mL

Q: The [...] is the additional amount you can exhale
A: expiratory reserve volume

Q: The [...] is the about 2500mL left in the lungs after normal expiration
A: functional residual capcity

Q: The [...] is the total amount of air we can move in and out
A: vital capacity

Q: The volumes of the airways themselves is known as the [...]
A: dead space

Q: [...] is the tidal volume * breathing rate and is measured in mL/min
A: minute ventilation

Q: The deeper we breathe, the lower the percentage of [...] is.
A: dead space

Q: [...] is a measurement of ventilation that accounts for dead space
A: Alveolar ventilation

Q: alveolar ventilation = [...]
A: (tidal volume - dead space) * breathing frequency

Q: Alveolar blood flow is proportional to [...]
A: ventilation

Q: An alveoli that is not function will receive [...]
A: less blood flow

Q: The [...] is the amount of CO2 produced per O2 molecule
A: respiratory quotient

Q: The lungs provide [...] than is required by the tissues
A: more oxygen

Q: In blood there is a [...] concentration of O2 that in the atmosphere, but a [...] concentration of CO2, so that these gases [...]
A: lower; higher; can diffuse down their concentration gradients

Q: The normal values for tidal volume and dead space are [...]
A: 500mL and 150mL

Q: The normal amounts for O2 in the blood are [...]mmHg in the arteries to [...]mmHg in the veins and [...]mL used per minute
A: 100; 40; 250

Q: The rate of diffusion across a surface is proportional to both the [...] and the [...]
A: concentration gradient; surface area

Header: Oxygen and CO2 blood concentrations

Header: Pressures of CO2 and O2 in the blood

Q: The diffusion of O2 into the blood reaches [...] with each breath
A: equilibrium

Q: Alveolar O2 pressures are only 100mmHg because [...]
A: dead volume and rapid diffusion out of alveolar air into the blood

Diseases that cause hypoxia do so by lowering surface area, increasing thickness of membrane, increasing diffusion distance, or increasing bronchiolar resistance

Q: Exchange between alveoli and [...] is normally complete within the [...] of [...] length
A: capillaries; first third; capillary

Q: Hemoglobin concentration in the blood is approximately [...]
A: 15g/100mL

Header: Hemoglobin function

Q: Hb is made up of [...] subunits
A: 4 identical

Q: Hb's sigmoidal binding curve shape results from [...] of bound oxygen
A: positive cooperativity

Q: With normal activity, the Hb O2 saturation goes from [...] in the tissues
A: 98% to 75%

Q: Both temperature and increasing acidity move the Hb binding curve [...]
A: right

Q: [...] is a chemical that shifts the Hb binding curve right
A: 2,3-DPG

Header: CO2 transport in blood

Q: Under normal conditions we breath [...] for [...]
A: every 5 seconds; 12 breaths a minute

Q: Inspiration is brought about by contraction of the [...]
A: diaphragm and the inspiratory intercostal muscles

Q: The [...] is the cluster of motor neurons that innervate the diaphragm
A: phrenic motor nucleus

Q: The phrenic motor nucleus is found in the [...] levels of the spinal cord
A: C3-C5

Q: The phrenic motor nucleus only produces an action potential in response to input from the [...]
A: dorsal respiratory group

Q: The DRG is located in the [...]
A: medulla

Header: Diaphragm innervation

Q: A network of neurons in the brain stem known as [...] bring about breathing
A: the respiratory rhythm generator

Q: The respiratory rhythm generator provides oscillatory electrical input to the [...]
A: dorsal respiratory group

Q: The lungs provide stretch mediated feedback to the [...] to prevent [...]
A: DRG; over inflation

Q: The site of the pacemaker activity in respiration is the [...]
A: pre-Botzinger nucleus of the VRG

Q: The [...] is the primary output section of the respiratory neurons
A: DRG

Q: The blood gas partial pressures are sensed by the [...] and provided as input into the [...]
A: arterial chemoreceptors; DRG

Header: Respiratory network flow chart

Header: Inspiratory neuron activity

Q: Chemoreceptor sites in the [...] and [...] sense [...] to provide input to drive respiration
A: carotid bodies; aortic bodies; H+ concentration and O2

Q: O2 sensors located in the [...] do not fire much under [...], but give a [...]
A: aortic arch and carotid artery; normal physiological conditions; strong response when O2 drops too low

Q: The CO2 sensors in the [...] exert ~75% of CO2 receptor influence
A: brain

Q: CO2 sensors in the brain respond to [...]
A: H+ generated in the brain

Q: You begin to breathe more quickly at the start of exercie due to [...]
A: feed forward control

Header: Nephron anatomy

Header: Kideny anatomy

Q: The medulla of the kidney contains the [...]
A: loops of Henle and collecting ducts

Q: The cortex of the kidney contains all [...]
A: Bowman's capsules, proximal and distal tubules

Header: More kidney anatomy

Q: The [...] suround the tubules and loops of Henle
A: peritubular capillaries

Q: Blood flow to the kidney represents [...] of cardiac output at rest
A: 20%

Header: Bowman's capsule up close

Q: Urinary excretion rate = [...]
A: filtration rate - reabsorption rate + secretion rate

Q: Approximately [...] is filtered through the kidney
A: 180L/day

Header: Different levels of filtration and excretion

Header: Filtration pressures

Q: Filtration = [...]
A: net filtration pressure x Kf

Q: The [...] are the leakiest capillaries in the body
A: Glomerular capillaries

Q: The colloid osmotic pressure from the nephron into the glomerular capillaries is relatively high because [...]
A: the high pressure of the capillaries forces a lot of fluid out, leaving the proteins behind

Q: [...] is the first part of the renal tubule system
A: Bowman's capsule

Q: The glomerular capillaries are more highly [...] than other capillaries
A: fenestrated

Header: Filtration membranes of kidney

Q: Another name for the basal lamina is the [...]
A: glomerular basement membrane

Header: Filtration rates

Q: Most filtered fluid is reabsorbed because urine output is only [...]
A: 1.5L / day

Q: Filtered load is the [...]
A: amount of a substance filtered per day

Q: [...] can keep GFR relatively stable through a mean arterial pressure range of 80-180mmHg
A: Renal autoregulation

Q: The two major contributors to renal autoregulation are [...]
A: myogenic mechanisms and tubuloglomerular feedback

Q: Myogenic control of GFR occurs when [...]
A: increased pressure causes afferent arterioles to contract

Q: Tubuloglomerular feedback occurs when [...]
A: Na delivery to the distal tubule is sensed in the macula densa, which influences the arterioles

Q: The macula densa influences the nearby arterioles via [...]
A: paracrine molecules

Q: With a substance that is not reabsorbed or secreted, GFR can be calculated from the [...]
A: volume urine and its urine concentration and its plasma volume

Q: [...] is how much blood would be cleared of a substance per unit time
A: Clearance

Q: Filtration fraction = [...]
A: GFR / renal plasma flow

Q: [...] is the clearance rate of a substance that is [...]
A: Renal plasma flow; freely filtered and completely secreted

Q: The typical renal plasma flow is [...]
A: 600mL / minute

Q: The bulk of kidney reabsorption takes place in the [...]
A: proximal tubule

Q: The majority of regulation of reabsorption takes place in the [...]
A: tubule segments distal to the loop of Henle

Q: Reabsorption of something in the kidneys moves through [epithelial layers]
A: tubular lumen, through apical membrane, into epithelial cells, through basolateral membrane, into interstitial fluid

Q: Sodium enters the kidney epithelial cells through [...] via [...]
A: ENaC channels; diffusion

Q: Sodium leaves the kidney epithelial cells through [...] via [...]
A: the sodium potassium pump; active transport

Q: Sodium also moves into epithelial cells via [...]
A: secondary symport transport with other molecules like glucose

Q: Water diffues out of the tubules via [...] following [...]
A: aquapores; sodium and other solutes

Q: The limits of reabsorption for molecules that are reabsorbed via mediated transport are known as [...]
A: transport maxima

Q: Excess water can be excreted because [...]
A: late segments of the tubules can be made impermeable to water while still secreting solutes out

Q: ADH increases the number of [...]
A: aquaporin molecules at the collecting duct

Q: ADH causes [...]
A: more water to be reabsorbed

Q: ADH secretion is very sensitive to changes in [...]
A: osmolarity

Q: Osmosensors work by sensing [...]
A: stretch caused by change levels of water in sensor

Q: The group of cells in the [...] that promote ADH release due to osmolality changes are called the [...]
A: hypothalamus; central osmosensors

Q: The absence of ADH causes [...]
A: hypotonic urine

Q: The thin descending loop of henle is permeable to [...] but [...]
A: water; not solute

Q: The thick ascending loop of Henle is permeable to [...]
A: solute but not water

Q: The loop of Henle forms a [...]
A: countercurrent multiplier system

Q: The blood vessels of the [...] surrounding the loop of henle prevent the [...]
A: vasa recta; high tonicity from being washed away

Q: With maximal ADH, the collecting duct is [...]
A: freely permeable to water

Q: As plasma osmolarity increases, plasma vasopressin levels [...]
A: increase

Q: As plasma vasopressin levels increase, urine volumen [...] and urine osmolarity [...]
A: decreases; increases

Header: ADH secretion stimuli

Q: The tubular fluid in the distal tubule is quite [...] because the [...]
A: hypotonic; ascending limb of the loop of Henle and the distal tubule pump out solute

Q: An increase in osmolarity causes an [...] in [...] in the collecting tubule
A: increase; aquapores

Q: The [...] is caused by [...]
A: obligate water loss; a need to remove the byproducts of metabolism

Q: The body must excrete [...] of solute in [...]L of urine at maximum concentration of [...]mOsm/L
A: 600 mOsm; 0.5; 1200

Q: [...] are the segments of the tubule system that do not transport Na+
A: The descending limb of the loop of henle and parts of the collecting duct

Q: In the absence of ADH, the body can excrete up to [...]L of urine
A: 25

Q: The osmolarity threshold for ADH secretion is so much lower than that for thirst because [...]
A: drinking water is a relatively dangerous behavior, so the body will try to manage thirst as much as possible before driving drinking behavior

Q: 98% of sodium is reabsorbed before reaching the [...], the main site for sodium reabsorption regulation
A: collecting tubule

Q: Sodium is reabsorbed via [...]
A: active transport

Q: [...] is the primary hormone of sodium homeostasis
A: Aldosterone

Q: Aldosterone is released from the [...]
A: adrenal cortex

Q: [...] [...] sodium reabosorption in the [...]
A: Aldosterone; increases; cortical collection tubule

Q: Aldosterone regulates sodium reabsorption via [...] to insert in the [...]
A: increasing the synthesis of new sodium potassium pumps; basolateral membrane of the cortical collecting ducts

Q: Aldosterone increases the number of [...] inserted into the lumenal membrane
A: sodium channels

Q: The primary stimulus for aldosterone secretion is [...] acting on the [...] cells of the [...]
A: angiotensin; aldosterone-releasing; adrenal cortex

Q: An increase in [...] secretion leads to an increase in angiotensin which leads to an increase in [...]
A: renin; aldosterone

Q: Renin is released from the [...], which lie adjacent to the [...]
A: juxtaglomerular cells; macula densa

Q: The 3 primary stimuli for renin release are [...]
A: sympathetic innervation of the juxtoglomerular cells, the macula densa sensing GFR, and intrarenal baroreceptors

Q: Angiotensin II appears to act directly on the [...] to promote [...]
A: proximal tubule; Na+ reaborption

Q: [...] peptide is released from the [...] in response to stretch, leading to increased Na+ excretion
A: Atrial natriuretic; right atrium

Q: Potassium levels are highly regulated due to [...]
A: their importance to excitable cells

Q: Regulation of potassium occurs by [...] at the level of the [...]
A: secretion; cortical collecting ducts

Q: [...] increases K+ excretion via [...]
A: Aldosterone; an increased sodium potassium pumps

Q: An increase in dietary sodium does not affect K+ levels because [...] which balances out [...]
A: increased Na+ also leads to an increase in GFR; the extra K+ retained from lowered aldosterone levels

Q: Calcium reabsorption is regulated by [...] at the [...]
A: parathyroid hormone; collecting ducts

Q: The major factors regulating pH homeostasis are [...], [...], and [...]
A: buffers like bicarb; respiration altering CO2; renal excretion and absorption of H+ and HCO3-

Q: The parathyroid gland is directly sensitive to changes in [...]
A: plasma Ca++

In alkalosis, type B intercalated cells in the collecting duct excrete HCO3- and K+ while reabsorbing H+

Q: In acidosis, type [...] intercalated cells in the collecting duct secrete [...] while reabsorbing [...]
A: A; H+; HCO3- and K+

Q: The [...] in the collecting ducts are responsible for [...]
A: I cells; acid-base regulation

Header: Neural control of breathing

Header: Resistance and ventilation

Header: Lung volumes

Q: Interpleural pressure reaches [...] at the end of inspiration
A: -7

Q: Blood in the [...] removes water leaving the loop of Henle
A: vasa recta

Q: Vasopressin adds additional pores to the [...] of the collecting duct
A: apical membrane

Q: Aldosterone is a steroid hormone so its effects are mediated through [...]
A: gene transcription in the nucleus

A decrease in sodium delivered to the macula densa increases renin secretion, which increases angiotensin creation, which increases aldosterone secretion, which increases Na+ reabsorption

Q: What are the units for specific heat
A: cal/g *C

Q: The phase changes of [...] are [...]
A: melting, evaporation, and sublimation; endothermic

Q: The ppm of a solution is [...]
A: mass of solute / total mass of solution

Q: The molality of a solution is the [...]
A: moles of solute / kg of solvent

Q: The heat of solution is the sum of the enthalpies of [...]
A: breaking solute-solute bonds, breaking solvent-solvent bonds, and forming solute-solvent bonds

Q: A liquid boils when its vapor pressure [...]
A: equals the pressure applied to it

Q: Vapor pressure of a solvent with a non-volatile solute is proportional to the [...]
A: mole ratio of the solvent

Q: To calculate the vapor pressure for a volatile solvent and solute, [...]
A: sum the vapor pressures times their mole ratios

Q: Solvation of gas has a [...] entropy
A: negative

Header: Basic oxidation states

Header: Reduction potential for hydrogen

Q: Reduction potentials are intensive so you [...]
A: do not multiply by the mole ratio

Q: The [...] in a galvanic cell prevents [...]
A: salt bridge; the free flow of electrons through one phase of the cell

Q: Anode cathode pnemonic
A: AN OX, RED CAT

Q: In a galvanic cell, electrons [...] the [...]
A: leave from; anode

Q: In a galvanic cell, electrons [...] the [...]
A: go to; cathode

Q: The electromotive force (emf) of an [...] cell is [...]
A: electrolytic; negative

Q: Electrons in the anode have a [...] potential energy than those in the cathode
A: higher

Q: Reduction is the [...] of electrons
A: gain

Header: galvanic cell

Equation for free energy from electrical potential:

Q: Electrons flow towards the [...] concentration in a concentration cell
A: higher

Q: For concentration cells, the [...] concentration goes on the bottom of the nernst equation
A: cathode's

Q: An electrolytic cell flips the [...] compared to a galvanic cell
A: anode and cathode charge

Q: DNA flows toward the [...] in electrophoresis
A: anode

Q: pH + pOH = [...]
A: 14

Q: [...] = [...] = [...]
A: Kw; [H3O+][OH-]; 10e-14

Header: Ka

Q: What is the pH of a 0.1M solution of NaOH?
A: 13

Header: Weak Acid pH calculation example

Q: What is an Arrhenius Acid?
A: any substance that produces H+ in aqueous solution

Q: What is a Bronstead-Lowry Acid?
A: any substance that donates a proton

Q: What is a Lewis acid?
A: Any substance that accepts a pair of electrons

Q: The main factor for acid strength on the MCAT is [...]
A: stability of the conjugate base

Q: [...] is the weakest halogen acid and [...] is the strongest one
A: HF; HI

Q: Acidity increases with [...] of central atom
A: oxidation state

What are the weird strong bases?

Q: Acids dissociate [...] in concentrated solution
A: less

Q: Things that can act as both acid and base are called [...]
A: amphoteric

Q: What is more acidic, an aldehyde or alcohol? [...]
A: alcohol

How can I calculate the free energy of a reaction if I have the equilibrium constant?

Q: What is the equivalence point of a titration?
A: Point where there are equal equivalents of acid and base in the solution

Q: When pH < pKa, a species is [...] likely to act acidic
A: less

Q: When pH > pKa, a species is [...] likely to act acidic
A: more

Header: Equivalence point of an example titration

Header: titration species

Q: At the half equivalence point there are [...] [...]
A: equal amounts of; acid and conjugate base

Q: At the [...], ph = [...]
A: half equivalence point; pKa

Q: The [...] must be used to find the pH at the [...]
A: Kb of the conjugate base; equivalence point

Q: The best indicator for a titration has a [...]
A: pKa equal to the pH of the titration equivalence point

Header: Polyprotic titration

Header: Alanine at various pH

Q: When titrating alanine, it is a zwitterion at the [...]
A: first equivalence point

Q: The pH where a species has a neutral charge is known as the [...]
A: isoelectric point

Q: Ka*Kb = [...]
A: 10e-14

Q: All cations except the [...] and the heavier [...] act as [...]
A: alkali metals; alkaline earth metals; weak Lewis acids

Q: Buffers are effective when their [...]
A: pKa is equal to the pH we want to buffer

Q: The adrenal medulla releases the [...]
A: catecholamines

Q: The adrenergic receptors in the heart are [...] receptors
A: Beta

Q: What effect does the sympathetic nervous system have on the kidney?
A: It increases renin secretion

Q: The four process of digestion are [...]
A: digestion, secretion, absorption, and motility

Header: GI tube

Q: There are villi in the stomach to increase [...]
A: surface area for secretion

Q: There are villi in the intestines to increase [...]
A: surface area for absorption

Header: GI contractions

Q: The two neural networks in the stomach and intestines are located in the [...] and the [...]. Both of these are part of the [...]
A: submucosal layer; muscle layer; enteric nervous system

Header: GI tract anatomy

Q: The [...] of electrical activity in the GI smooth muscle are important for controlling the [...]
A: slow waves; rhythmic GI contractions

Q: [...] contractions are found in the [...]
A: Tonic; sphincters

Q: Slow waves are caused by cycling changes in the activity of the [...]
A: sodium potassium pump

Q: Spike potentials occur at the [...]
A: crest of the slow waves

Q: [...] contractions in the GI tract are responsible for [...]
A: Segmental; mixing

Q: The [...] is a slow wave of contraction that moves from the stomach through the small intestines (taking about [...]) in the time between meals, and acts to move stuff along the GI tract.
A: migrating motor complex; 90 min

Q: The three stages of degulutition are [...]
A: voluntary, involuntary pharyngeal stage, and an esophageal stage

Q: Mastication is important because it [...]
A: increases the surface area of food exposed to digestive enzymes

Q: The contractions inside the stomach are [...] and [...]
A: weak; mainly for mixing the chyme around

Q: [...] fluid secreted in the GI tract is reabsorbed
A: Most

Q: Digestive enzymes are secreted by [...] cells in the pancreas
A: exocrine

Q: The major digestive enzymes secreted by the stomach are [...]
A: pepsin (as pepsinogen) and gastic lipase

Q: Many of the pancreatic enzymes are activated by [...], which is itself activated by [...], which is a [...]
A: trypsin; enteropeptidase; brush border enzyme

Q: Mucus is secreted by [...] and [...]
A: mucus cells in the stomach; goblet cells in the intestine

Q: Bile is made in [...] and stored in the [...] to be secreted into the small intestine through the [...]
A: the liver; gallbladder; sphincter of Oddi

Q: Bile helps [...] [...]
A: emulsify and digest; fats

Q: Two of the most important ions seceted in the GI tract are [...] in the stomach and [...] in the small intestine
A: H+; HCO3-

Header: Cells in the stomach

Q: The H+ pumped into the stomach is exchanged with [...]
A: K+

Header: Pancreatic secretions

Q: The pancreas secretes [...] into the intestine while it secretes [...] into the [...] to regulate pH
A: bicarb; H+; bloodstream

Q: Carbohydrates move accross the epithelial lining via [...]
A: active transport or facilitated transport

Proteins are digested in the stomach by acid and  pepsin, and in the small intestine by trypsin and chymotrypsin that come from the pancreas

Header: Fat digestion

Q: HCL is secreted by the [...] cells in the stomach
A: parietal

Q: The three phases of digestion are the [...]
A: cephalic phase, gastric phase, and the intestinal phase

Q: The long reflex pathway in GI regulation involves [...], while the short reflex pathway just involves [...]
A: sensors going all the way to the brain; sensors and the enteric nervous system

Q: The sight and smell of food begins the digestive process through [...]
A: feedforward regulation

Header: Cephlic phase gastrin regulation

Q: Increased [...] activity to the stomach promtes [...] from parietal cells and [...] from chief cells
A: vagal nerve; gastic acid secretion; pepsinogen secretion

Q: G cells in the stomach secrete [...]
A: Gastrin

Header: Stomach secretion regulation

Q: Food entering the stomach increases its [...] triggering the [...]
A: pH; release of more HCL

Q: The gastic phase of digestion begins with [...]
A: food entering the stomach

Q: [...] in the stomach causes gastrin secretion, which causes [...] in the [...] phase
A: Distention and food; acid and pepsinogen secretion; gastic

Q: The intestinal phase of digestion starts with [...]
A: the delivery of chyme into the small intestine

Q: Gastrin is a [...] that is secreted [...]
A: hormone; into the blood

Q: Gastrin secretion is stimulated by [...] input into the [...]
A: vagal; G cells

Q: Contraction [...] is an intrinsic property of the stomach, but [...] is influenced by [...]
A: frequency; strength of contraction; neural and hormonal input

Q: The presence of acid chyme in the small duodenum causes the release of an intestinal hormone [...]
A: secretin

Secretin inhibits acid secretion and gastric motility as well as stimulating the pancrease to secrete bicarb to neutralize the acid

Fat in the duodenum stimulates the secretion the intestinal hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), which also inhibits gastric acid secretion and motility.

Header: Gastric and Intestinal regulation

Q: The major secretions of the intestinal phase are [...] from the pancreas, [...] to help digest food, [...], and mucus
A: bicarb; pancreatic enzymes; bile

Q: Secretion of pancreatic enzymes into the intestines is regulated by neural signals from stretch sensitive receptors and possibly hormones, and [...], which signals the presence of [...] in the intestine
A: CCK; chyme

Header: 4 big digestive hormones

Header: Big digestion overview

Q: The gallbaldder retracts in response to [...], which makes sense because [...]
A: CCK; CCK is released in response to fats entering intestine and bile dissolves fat

Q: The common treatments for excess acid secretion in the stomach are [...] and [...]
A: proton pump inhibitors; histamine antagonists

Q: During digestion of a meal energy substrates are in abundant supply and this is referred to as the [...]
A: absorptive state

Q: Between meals, the body needs to make use of stored energy substrates; this is called the [...]
A: postabsorptive (fasted) state

Q: Carbohydrates are absorbed into the blood stream as [...], proteins as [...], and fats as [...]
A: free sugars; free amino acids; chylomicrons

Q: Chylomicrons make it into the bloodstream via the [...]
A: lymph system which delivers them to blood at the vena cava

Q: Sugars and amino acids enter the blood stream through the [...] circulation
A: hepatic portal

Glucose is stored as:
glycogen in muscle and liver
triglycerides, created in the liver, in adipose tissue
triglycerides created in adipose tissue

Q: To transport the triglycerides it creates, the liver complexes them with [...] to form [...]
A: proteins; VLDL

Q: During the absorptive state, amino acids are either [...] or metabolized to [...] for energy or conversion to fatty acids
A: used by cells to create new proteins; keto-acids

Q: During the fasting state, the processes of [...], [...], and [...] are used to help provide the body with energy
A: glycogenolysis; lipolysis; gluconeogensis

Q: The two hormones [...] secreted by the cell clusters of the [...] in the [...] are responsible for switching between the absorptive and postabsorptive states
A: insulin and glucagon; Iselets of Langerhans; pancreas

Q: In the pancreas, beta cells secrete [...] and alpha cells secrete [...]
A: insulin; glucagon

Insulin is the primary hormone of the absorptive state and promotes:
glucose uptake,
glucose storage,
and amino acid uptake and protein synthesis

Q: Insulin stimulates glucose uptake into many cells by [...] and altering the activity and expression of [...].
A: increasing the insertion of glucose transporters into the cell membrane; certain enzymes involved in metabolism

Q: Glucagon acts as the opposite of insulin by promoting [...], [...], and [...] in the liver
A: glycogenolysis; gluconeogenisis; ketone synthesis

Header: Insulin and its regulation

Header: Glucagon regulation

Header: Sympathetically mediated increase in glucose

Q: Cortisol increases [...] in the liver and [...] in adipose tissue
A: gluconeogenesis; lipolysis

Q: HDL moves cholesterol into the [...] for elimination via [...]
A: liver; bile salts

Q: LDL is bad because [...]
A: it can build up on the walls of blood vessels if the concentration is too high

Q: About 50% of the energy we consume goes into [...] and the other 50% goes into [...]
A: heat; performing work

Q: The most important determinant of basal metabolic rate are the [...]
A: thyroid hormones

Q: Leptin from [...] helps [...]
A: fat cells; limit energy intake

Q: Ghrelin is secreted by [...] and promotes [...]
A: the stomach; food intake

Q: The two big intestine hormones are [...]
A: secretin and CCK

Q: Fats moving into the intestines cause the release of [...], which causes the relase of [...]
A: CCK; pancreatic digestive enzymes

Q: Secretin inhibits [...] and [...] while stimulating [...]
A: acid secretion; gastic mobility; pancreatic bicarb secretion

Q: Secretin is released in response to [...]
A: acid in the duodenum

Q: Aldosterone secretion is increased in response to [...]
A: decreased Na+ levels

Q: ADH is secreted in response to [...] body osmolarity
A: high

Q: The [...] are sensitive to sodium levels and increase [...] to increase sodium levels via [...]
A: macula densa; renin secretion; aldosterone

Q: Low blood pressure causes [...] to be secreted to form [...]
A: renin; angiotesin II

Q: An increase in angiotensin II also causes more [...] to be secreted
A: aldosterone

Q: [...] innervation of the juxtoglomerular cells causes [...]
A: Sympathetic; increased renin secretion

Q: Sympathetic ganglionic receptors respond to the NT [...]
A: acetylcholine

Q: Atrial natriuretic hormone is secreted in response to [...] and causes [...]
A: increased blood volume causing stretch on the atrium; more Na+ to be excreted

Q: In response to dehydration, the baroreceptors increase [...] innervation of the heart and constrict [...] in an attempt to [...]
A: sympathetic; the arterioles; raise blood pressure

Q: Parathyroid hormone causes an increase in [...] in the collecting duct
A: calcium reabsorption

Q: Impaired breathing causes pH to go [...]
A: down

Q: Secretin is primarily involved in [...] homeostasis
A: acid

Q: Increasing vascular resistance will [...] blood pressure
A: increase

Q: Carbohydrates entering the intestine cause the release of [...], which promotes the release of [...]
A: GIP; insulin

Q: D cells in the stomach secrete [...], which inhibits the release of [...] from [...] cells
A: somatostatin; histamine; ECL

Q: [...] promotes the release of [...] from ECL cells, and [...] from parietal cells
A: Gastrin; histamine; acid

Q: An increase in acid in the stomach triggers the release of [...] from [...]
A: pepsinogen; cheif cells

Q: Gastrin is released by the [...]
A: G cells

Q: The [organ] is responsible for handling pH in the digestive tract
A: pancreas

Q: [...] helps digest fats in the stomach
A: Gastric lipase

Q: [...] innervation of the Beta cells promotes insulin secretion
A: Vagal

Q: Histamine acts on the [...] in the stomach
A: parietal cells

Q: As Ka increases, pKa [...]
A: decreases

Q: At a pH of 1 above the pKa the ratio of Acid to conjugate base is [...]
A: 1:10

Specific gravity for a substance

Density of water in kg/m^3 and g/cm^3

SI unit for Pressure and what is the atmospheric pressure in it?

Q: Pressure at the point pointed to here:
A: P = pgy

Q: If a container is open, you must [...] when calculating fluid pressure on the container
A: add atmospheric pressure

Q: The hydraulic lift is a practical application of [...] to reduce work
A: Pascal's Principle

Q: F2 will be [...] than F1 in this diagram:
A: greater

Q: Hydraulic lifts reduce amount of force needed to lift something because [...]
A: pressure remains constant in the fluid, so having a greater area will make force greater to balance it out

Q: Archimedes principle states that the [...] is equal to the [...]
A: buoyant force; weight of the fluid displaced

Q: The buoyant force on an object is greatest when the object is [...]
A: fully submerged in the water

Q: The buoyant force results from [...]
A: the pressure gradient created by the bottom of the object being lower in the fluid than the top

The fraction of a floating object submerged in a fluid is equal to:

Q: The way to remember the density ratio for calculating the percentage of a floating object submerged in a fluid is that [...]
A: the objecting is floating on top of the fluid

Q: The ratio of object's density to fluid's density must be [...] if the object is floating
A: less than 1

Q: If an object is neutrally buoyant it must have [...]
A: the same density as the fluid

The apparent weight loss of a submerged object is:

Q: The pressure created by the column of mercury in a barometer is equal to the [...]
A: atmospheric pressure at the bottom of the column

Q: Flow rate (Q) = [...] and it [...]
A: Area * velocity; remains constant

Q: A practical effect of the continuity equation is that when you pinch the end of a hose [...]
A: the water comes out faster

Bernouilli's equation

What is v2 equal to?

Q: As velocity increases in a fluid, pressure [...] due to [...]
A: decreases; Bernoulli's equation

Q: The decrease in pressure that occurs when a fluid flows into a constricted region of a pipe is know as the [...]
A: venturi effect

Q: The fact that flow rate is constant explains the fact that fluid velocity in capillaries is [...] than in the arteries due to the [...]
A: slower; total cross sectional area of all the capillaries being much greater than that of the artery feeding them

Q: The flow velocity near a pipe wall is [...] in real fluids
A: 0

Q: Fluid resistance is directly proportional to [...] and [...] and inversely proportional to [...]
A: length; fluid viscosity; radius^4

Q: [...] is the collection of lasting characteristics that makes a person unique
A: Personality

Q: [...] states that personailty consists of a set of traits that vary between individuals and are stable over the course of a lifetime
A: Trait theory

Q: [...] compare personality differences between monozygotic twins in an attempt to gauge the inflence of genetics vs the environment
A: Twin studies

Q: [...] is primarily concerned with an universal personality structure that subconsciously influences and defines our personality
A: Psychoanalytic theory

Q: [...] was influential in assuming that early childhood experiences can have a great impact on personality later in life
A: Pyschoanalytic theory

Q: The [...] states that personality is constructed by a series of learning experiences that occur through interactions between the individual and their environment
A: behaviorist theory

Q: The essence of the [...] is that individuals have learning experiences throughout their lifetimes that lead to predictable behaviors, which make up personality
A: behaviorist theory

Q: The [...] thinks that personality is behavior, which differs from the other theories of personality
A: behaviorist theory

Q: [...] focuses on learning experiences and observable behaviors, while considering the contributions of an individual's mental life and personal choices
A: Social cognitive theory

Q: The process of [...] occurs when people learn from the experiences of others and apply the lessons of previous experiences to new situations
A: observational learning

Q: The [...] explores how observational learning, thought, and emotion affect our personalities
A: social cognitive theory

Reciprocal causation, which states that behavior, personal factors, and the environment continually interact and influence each other is an important component of the social cognitive theory of personality

Q: The [...] theory of personality says that people continually seek [...] that make them [...].
A: humanistic; experiences; better, more fulfilled, individuals

Q: Conscious decisions, rather than stable, uncontrollable traits or unconscious impulses, make people who they are according to the [...] theory of personality
A: humanistic

Q: The [...] contends that the concept of enduring personality traits is fatally flawed because fo the variations in behavior that occur accross different situations
A: situational approach to explaining behavior

Q: An individuals interpretation of a situation is key in the [...]
A: situational approach to explaining behavior

The trait, biological, psychoanalytical and behaviorist theories of personality say that the indiviual has little control over their personality, while the social cognitive and humanistic theories say that they do

Header: Personality theories

Q: [...] can be thought of as a person's view of who they are interms of both internal factors, including personality traits, and social or external factors, like group membership
A: Identity

Q: Identity differs from personality by placing a larger emphasis on [...]
A: the individual's own perception of self

Q: [...] is the most personal aspect of identity.
A: Self concept

Q: [...] can be thought of as a person's view of his or her own [...]
A: Self-concept; personality

Q: [...] is the perception of oneself as a member of certain [...]
A: Social identity; social groups

Q: The cognitive component of social identity is the [...], while the emotional compoennt comes from an individual's [...].
A: categorization of oneself into a certain group; emotional attachment to the groups with which they identify

Q: [...] means adopting the [...] of another person by imitating behaviors associated with specific social roles or by take the other person's point of view in a social interaction.
A: Role taking; role

Q: Identity is developed in children through [...] and [...]
A: role taking; imitation

Q: An individual's [...] is a group that provides him or her with a model for appropriate actions, values, and worldviews.
A: reference group

Q: [...] refers to a person's overall value judgment of him or herself.
A: Self-esteem

Q: [...] is the feeling of being able to carry out an action successfully
A: Self-efficacy

Q: [...] is a person's belief about the extent to which internal or external factors play a role in shaping his or her life.
A: Locus of control

Q: [...] of developmental stages proposed a sequential series of psychosexual stages in early childhood
A: Freud's theory

Q: [...] theory frames the stages of development in terms of impulses of the id
A: Freud's

Q: [...] reinvisioned Freud's psychosexual stages as [...] stages
A: Erik Erikson; psychosocial

Q: [...] theory presents each stage as a [...] between [...] that need to be resolved
A: Erik Erikson's; crisis; two opposite ways of viewing the world

Q: Identity moratorium in James Marcia's theory describes an adolescent in the midst of [...]
A: identity crisis

Q: The most important element of [...] theory is that learning takes place through [...] that promote the acquisition of [...]
A: Lev Vygostsky's; interactions with others; culturally valued behaviors and beliefs.

Q: Social interaction is a key part of the [...] that shapes identity formation
A: socialization

Q: In [...] theory children at their current development level are helped by adults to accomplish and internalize tasks in the zone of proximal development, to one day reach areas beyond their current potential
A: Lev Vygotsky's

Q: [...] related learning to identity by saying children have to learn with help from others how to act in social roles
A: Lev Vygotsky

Q: [...] states that we develop morality through a predictable sequence of stages of moral development
A: Kholberg's theory of moral development

Q: The [...] level of moral reasoning describes moral judgements that are based solely on consideration of the [...]
A: preconventional; anticipated consequences of behavior

Q: The [...] level of moral reasoning in Kohlberg's theory takes into account social judgements
A: conventional

Q: The [...] level of moral reasoning advances beyond personal and interpersonal considerations, rising to the level of universal princeiples and fully-developed ideas about right and wrong
A: postconventional

Q: Kholberg described the preconventional level as characteristic of [...], the conventional as [...]
A: childhood; adolescent and beyond

Q: People who remain in the [...] level of moral reasoning are more likely to be in [...], accepting societal and parental guidelines in matters of both identity and morality
A: conventional; identity foreclosure

Q: [...] is research into the causes that people use to explain the observed behavior of others
A: Attribution Theory

Q: In attribution theory [...] assigns the cause to an [...] quality or desire of the person
A: dispositional attribution; inherent

Q: In attribution theory, [...] decides that [...] were in control
A: situational attribution; environmental forces

Q: The tendency to automatically favor [...] attribution over [...] ones when judging other people is known as the [...]
A: dispositional; situational; fundamental attribution error

Q: The [...] is often caused by [...] about another's experiences
A: fundamental attribution error; incomplete information

Q: The tendency to attribute ones successes to internal factors while attributing failures to external factors is known as [...]
A: self-serving bias

Q: [...] often affects attributions
A: Culture

Q: Perceiving oneself as part of a particular group can result in the adoption of that groups perceptions of others, showing how [...] influence attribution
A: self-perceptions

Q: Our perception of environment can also affect [...]
A: attribution

Q: The defining feature of [...] is the psychological impairment that accompanies bodily symptoms, rather than the nature of the bodily experience.
A: somatic disorders

Q: [...] are defined by the experience of unwarranted fear and anxiety, physiological tension, and behaviors associated with the emotional a physical experience of anxiety
A: Anxiety disorders

Q: [...] manifest physically as excessive sympathetic nervous system activation
A: Anxiety disorders

Q: [...] are defined by two extremes along the spectrum of emotional experience: depression and mania
A: Mood disorders

Q: The heritability of depression is found to be about [...]
A: 40%

Q: [...] is fundamentally characterized by an impaired connection with reality
A: Schizophrenia

Q: Positive symptoms for [...] include [...]
A: schizophrenia; hallucinations and delusions

Q: The biological basis of schziophrenia suggests that the disease is highly [...] and may be related to [...]
A: heritable; high dopamine levels

Q: [...] disorders are defined by the experience of a split between different aspects of psychological functioning
A: Dissociative

Q: People with [...] disorders have often had some type of [...]
A: dissociative; traumatic experience

Q: [...] disorders involve the development of personality traits that cause psycohlogical and social dysfunction
A: Personality

Q: [...] are psychiatric conditions that are defined by their tendency to endure temporally and across different situations
A: Personality disorders

Q: Psychiatric conditions defined by the psychological response to bodily symptoms are [...] disorders
A: somatic symptom

Header: Psychological disorder rates

Q: In order for something to be said to have causation of an effect, it must be [...]
A: measured before the effect

Q: [...] allows children to develop a sense of who they are in relation to other people, encouraging the formation of an identity
A: Role-taking

Q: An individual's [...] is a group that provides him or her with a model for appropriate actions, values and worldviews.
A: reference group

Q: East asians show a lower bias towards [...] that do Western subjects when [...]
A: dispositional attributions; the experiment places greater emphasis on situations influences

Q: [...] involves temporarilty losing memory of events to cope with a tramatic experience
A: Dissociative amnesia

Q: In order to be diagnosed with [...], one must exhibit hallucinations, delusions, or disorganized speech
A: schizophrenia

Header: tautomerization

Equation for centripetal force

Real gases differ from ideal gases at increased pressure and decreased temperature because these violates the ideal assumptions that gases take up no space and collide elastically

Q: Cis and trans are a type of [...]
A: diastereomer

Q: The four types of bone cells are osteoprogenitor, [...]
A: osteblasts, osteocytes, and osteoclasts

Q: [...] are bone cells that secrete collagen and organic compounds around themselves to create bone
A: Osteoblasts

Q: Osteoblasts become osteocytes whenever they are [...]
A: encased in the bone material they've secreted

Q: [...] resorb bone matrix releasing the chemicals into the blood
A: osteoclasts

Q: Bone growth is stimulated by [...] during [...]
A: growth hormone; childhood

Q: The two main types of bone structure are [...]
A: spongy and compact

Spongy bone contains red bone marrow, while compact encloses the stores of yellow bone marrow

Q: Compact bone is replaced continuously by [...] that are followed by [...], forming new bone and [...] for nutrients
A: osteoclasts; osteoblasts; canals

Q: The remodeling of bone is subject to [...] control
A: endocrine

Q: An increase in [...] results in increased [...] via [...]
A: parathyroid hormone; blood Ca2+ levels; breakdown of bone by osteoclasts

Q: An increase in vitamin D results in increased [...]
A: Ca2+ absorption in the intestines

Q: Bone is formed from [...] and is therefore key in regulating body levels of these minerals
A: calcium and phosphate and hydroxide

Q: [...] holds the [...] in place giving bone tensile and compression strength
A: Collagen; mineral bone

Q: The four types of bone are [...]
A: long, short, flat, and irregular

Q: Short bones are [...] and found in the [...]
A: cuboidal; wrist and ankles

Q: Flat bone is shaped the way it is to provide [...] and a place for [...]
A: organ protection; muscle attachment

Q: Examples of irregular bone are [...] and [...] bones
A: hip; ear

Cartilage is composed primarily of collagen and contains no blood vessels or nerves except at its outer membrane

Q: The three types of joints are [...]
A: fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial

Fibrous Joints occur between two bones and allow little movement, examples are the teeth & manible, and skull plates

Q: Bones in [...] are tightly connected by cartilage. Examples are the [...] and [...]
A: cartilaginous joints; sternum; pubic symphysis

Q: Synovial joints are filled with [...] that provides [...] and contains [...]
A: synovial fluid; lubrication; macrophages

Q: Most thermoregulation provided by the skin is via [...], some occurs via [...]
A: radiation; evaporation

Q: In order to increase heat dissipation, [...] of the skin dialate
A: surface capillaries

Q: The amount of heat released by the skin is under [...] control
A: hormonal

Q: The [...] of the skin interact with [...]
A: Langerhans cells; helper T-cells

Q: Dermis blood vessels hold [...] of the body's blood
A: 10%

Q: UV light activates a [...] in the skin, that gets converted to its active form in the liver
A: vitamin D precursor

Q: The epidermis is composed of 4 different cell types: [...]
A: keratinocytes, melanocytes, Langerhans cells, and Merkel cells

Q: [...] cells in the epidermis attach to [...]
A: Merkel; sensory neurons

Q: Friction on the epidermis causes it to produce a [...]
A: callus

Q: [...] cells and [...] cells are in the deepest layer of the epidermis
A: Stem; Merkel

Q: In the [...], [...] provide the skin with strength
A: dermis; collagen and elastic fibers

Hair, nails, and glands are located in the dermis

Q: Hair strands stand up due to contraction of the [...]
A: eretile musculature

Q: There are two types of [...], one which is located [...], and one which is located in [...]
A: sweat glands; everywhere; certain locations

Header: Skin layers

Q: Osteoclasts are thought to develop from the [...]
A: WBC monocytes

Q: The phosphate backbone of DNA is [...] charged
A: negatively

Q: Catalysts have no effect on the [...]
A: equilibrium constant

Q: Proteins denature at high temperature due to the increased contribution of the [...] in the free energy equation
A: entropic factor

Q: In order for diffusion to occur, there must be a [...]
A: concentration gradient

Q: If there is no net movement, there [...] work performed
A: is no

Q: If the enthalpy of a reaction is positive, heat can be thought of as a [...]
A: reactant

Q: Equation for wavelength:
A: Velocity (m/s) = Wavelength (m) * Frequency (1/s)
V = λf

Q: a 50 dB increase represents an increase of [...] increase in amplitude
A: 100000 = 10^5

Q: If the tension on a string is [...], it will vibrate at [...] frequencies
A: lowered; lower

Henderson Hasselbalch equation:

Q: As an object falls, its acceleration [...]
A: does not change

Q: The electric field inside of a capacitor is [...]
A: uniform

Q: Vitamin D is a [...] vitamin with a [...] precursor
A: lipid soluable; cholesterol

Q: The lipid soluable vitamins are [...]
A: K, A, D, E

Q: A decarboxylation reaction releases [...] as the carboxyl group is removed
A: CO2

Q: Eukaryotic cells have [...] ribosome subunits, while prokaryotic cells have [...]
A: 40S and 60S; 30S and 50S

Q: Anaerobic microbes do not have [...] as the final electron acceptor of their ETC's
A: oxygen

Q: [...] are responsible for holding together cells of the epidermis
A: Desmosomes

Q: NADH and FADH are in the [...] class of molecules
A: dinucleotide

Q: Lactate is formed to regenerate [...] necessary for the continuation of [...] whenever oxygen is insufficient
A: NAD+; glycolysis

Q: The [...] germ layer of the gastrula gives rise to cardiomyocytes
A: mesoderm

Q: Allowing potassium to [...] will [...] the cell
A: leave the cell down its concentration gradient; hyperpolarize

Q: In addition to the AV and SA nodes the [...] can also contract rhythmically on their own.
A: Purkinje fibers

Q: The degree of contraction of a muscle correlates with [...]
A: intercullular calcium concentration

Q: DNA has one fewer [...] than RNA
A: hydroxyl group

Q: [...] describes how signals are discerned from noise
A: Signal detection theory

Q: [...] are when certain populations have higher incidence of [...] compared to other populations
A: Health disparities; disease and mortality

Q: The [...] theory describes the innate desires for food, water, and sex.
A: drive reduction

Q: [...] describes the process in which a condition that was previously considereed normal and is not inherently biological or medical comes to be considered under the purview of medicine
A: Medicalization

Q: [...] is the process through which short-term memories are transferred into long-term memory
A: Memory consolidation

Q: [...] describes the actions that often arise as a result of stereotyping or prejudice
A: Discrimination

Piaget's Pre-Operational stage is from ages 2-7 and marks a time in which children have an egocentric view of the world and are unable to take the perspective of another individual

Q: Weber's law for light perception follows a [...] pattern
A: linear

Q: The focal distance of the lens of the eye increases when the [...]
A: ciliary muscle relaxes

Q: When ciliary muscle relaxes it [...] the suspensory ligament
A: pulls

Q: The theory of [...] can be used to explain the updating of the symptom lists in the DSM.
A: social constructionism

Q: [...] is the idea that many cultures can co-exist together in a society
A: Multiculturalism

Q: [...] in the salt bridge flow towards the [...] in a galvanic cell
A: Anions; anode

Q: [...] flow towards the [...] from the salt bridge in a galvanic cell
A: Cations; cathode

Q: [...] are lab techniques that use intermolecular forces to separate a mixture into its component parts.
A: Separations

Header: Lab method based on solubility

Q: [...] extraction can be used to separate nucleic acids from cellular proteins
A: Phenol-chloroform

Q: [...] separates compounds based on their [...]
A: Distillation; boiling point

Q: [...] works by having the [...] on glass beads in the fractionating column
A: Fractional distillation; less volatile component condense over and over

Header: Comparison of chromatography methods

Q: [...] separates DNA, RNA, or proteins based on [...] or [...]
A: Gel electrophoresis; size; charge

Q: [...] gel is used in gel electrophoresis of [...]
A: Agarose; DNA

Q: [...] coats protein with negative charges proportional to the protein's [...]
A: SDS detergent; length

Q: Size as well as [...] can be used to separate proteins
A: isoelectric point

Q: A ladder in gel electrophoresis is a standard solution used to [...]
A: measure the size of the pieces of the tested compound

Q: The technique called [...] allows particular nucleic acid or protein sequences to be visualized
A: blotting

Q: Southern blotting is for [...], northern blotting is for [...], western blotting is for [...]
A: DNA; RNA; proteins

Q: After you've run a gel, you do a southern blot by [...] and [...], which [...]
A: transferring the dna to a membrane; adding a flourescent probe; binds with its complementary DNA sequence

Q: Western blotting works by using an [...] to bind to a specific [...] sequence, which is then identified by [...]
A: antibody; protein; a labelled antibody enzyme which binds to the antibody

Q: [...], [...], or [...] can be used to separate a racemic mixture
A: Crystallization; stereospecific enzymes; conversion into diastereomers

Header: Gel electrophoresis

Q: It is extremely difficult to arrive at a pure substance only using [...]
A: crystallization

Q: [...] cannot completely separate compounds due to the eventual formation of an [...]
A: Distillation; azeotrope

Q: [...] is a separation technique that is more effective when [...]
A: Distillation; performed slowly

Q: [...] chromatography can occasionally use antibodies to separate a mixture of compounds
A: Affinity

Q: In thin layer chromatography polar compounds will rise [...] through the silica gel than nonpolar compounds
A: more slowly

Q: TLC and paper chromatography typically have a [...] mobile phase and a [...] stationary phase
A: nonpolar; polar

Header: Paper Chromatography

Q: [...] is the study of the interaction between matter and light
A: Spectroscopy

Header: Different types of spectroscopy

Q: Nuclei with [...] atomic number or mass number have [...]
A: odd; nuclear spin

Q: A nuclei will exhibit resonance in NMR when the ΔE between high and low energy states is equal to the [...]
A: energy of the electromagnetic radiation it is exposed to

Q: Changing the strength of the magnetic field in NMR changes [...]
A: the ΔE between high and low energy states of alignment of the nucleus

Header: NMR Spectrum

Q: Each peak on an NMR spectrum represents [...]
A: chemically equivalent hydrogens

Q: The [...] of peaks into multiple smaller peaks is due to [...]
A: spin-spin splitting; neighboring hydrogens on adjacent carbons

Q: Number of NMR peaks due to splitting = [...]
A: # of neighboring H's + 1

Q: Neighboring hydrogens are [...]
A: hydrogens that are located on adjacent carbons

Q: Aldehyde protons have a NMR shift of [...]
A: 9.5 ppm

Q: Electron withdrawing groups [...] shielding and are located [...] on an NMR spectrum
A: lower; downfield

Q: Electron donating groups [...] shielding and are located [...] on an NMR spectrum
A: increase; upfield

Q: The peak at 0 on an NMR spectrum represents [...]
A: the hydrogens on the compound used to calibrate the NMR

Q: IR light causes dipoles in [...] to [...]
A: polar bonds; stretch and contract

Q: When the resonance frequency of a polar bond is equal to the frequency of IR light, the [...]
A: IR light's energy is absorbed

Q: The region where you identify functional groups with IR spec is [...], while the fingerprint region is [...]
A: 1600-3500cm^-1; 600-1400cm^-1

Q: Stiffer bonds like double and triple bonds resonate at [...]
A: higher frequency

Q: UV light has a wavelength range of [...]
A: 200-400nm

Q: [...] is used to detect [...]
A: Ultraviolet spectroscopy; conjugated π-bond systems

Q: Ultraviolet spectroscopy works by comparing the [...]
A: UV light spectrum absorbed by a compound in solvent vs just the solvent as reference

Q: UV light interacting with conjugated systems can bump an electron from the [...] to the [...], absorbing the light
A: highest occupied molecular orbital (HOMO); lowest unoccupied molecular orbital (LUMO)

Q: Each additional conjugated π bond increases the wavelength of UV light absorbed by [...]
A: 30-40nm

Q: [...] double bonds will move the wavelength of light absorbed into the [...]
A: Eight or more; visible spectrum

Q: β-carotene is orange because they absorb blue-green light, reflecting only the [...] orange
A: complementary color

Q: [...] is used to determine the [...], with [...], of a compound
A: Mass spectrometry; molecular weight or molecular formula; high resolution mass spec

Q: In mass spec, samples are bombarded with [...] to [...] and [...]
A: electrons; ionize them; break them apart

Q: The largest ion produced in mass spec, which is usually the molecule - 1 electron, is called the [...]
A: molecular ion

Q: In mass spec, the largest peak is called the [...]
A: base peak

Header: Mass spectrogram

Q: Dna fully denatures at [...] and Dna with more [...] will require higher temperatures
A: 95*C; G-C pairs

Q: Nucleic acid hybridization is when [...]
A: DNA and RNA spontaneously combine with their complementary strands

Q: Bacteria protect themselves from their own restriction enzymes with [...]
A: DNA methylation

Q: Recombinant DNA can be inserted into a bacterial geneome using a [...] or [...]
A: plasmid; viral vector

Q: The genes [...] and ones for [...] are used to select for bacteria that have taken up the recombinant DNA to use in a cDNA library
A: lacz; antibiotic resistance

Q: The use of lacz in recombinant DNA makes it [...]
A: visually differentiable which bacterial colonies have taken up the recombinant DNA

Q: A probe DNA sequence is [...]
A: a short sequence of radiolabelled or flourescently labelled complementary DNA used to identify a particular piece of DNA

Q: cDNA is created via [...] using [...]
A: reverse transcriptase; mRNA that has had its introns removed

Q: Quantitative PCR works because it is known that [...]
A: every round of PCR doubles the amount of DNA

PCR steps::
1. Denature DNA at high temp
2. Lower temp, allowing DNA to anneal to RNA primers
3. Allow Taq polymerase to replicate DNA
4. Repeat

Q: To measure the amount of DNA in quantitative PCR, [...]
A: the DNA is flourescently labelled, and the difference in intensity is measured

Q: Sanger sequencing uses [...] to [...], which then allows the sequence to be determined with [...]
A: dideoxyribonucleotides; stop replication at each different locus of a DNA sequence; gel electrophoresis

Q: DNA micro arrays measure [...] using [...] that is allowed to [...]
A: relative gene expression; flourescently labelled mRNA from different situations; hybridize with the many probes present on the chip

Q: Knockout animals are created by [...]
A: removing genes from embryonic stem cells or zygotes

Q: [...] can also change gene products by using [...]
A: RNA interference; small RNAs to block translation of specific mRNAs

Q: Restriction fragment length polymorphism uses the [...] to [...]
A: difference in length between restriction sites in different individuals; identify them

Q: [...] uses a [...] to [...]
A: Human gene therapy; viral vector; recombine DNA in diseased cells or stem cells

Q: [...] is the use of [...] to [...]
A: Biometry; statistical methods; understand biological data

Q: N-H shows as a [...] peak on IR while O-H is a [...] peak
A: pointy; very broad

Q: Precipitation is an [...] process
A: exothermic

Q: Grignard reactions require specific reaction conditions because they [...]
A: react strongly with water

Header: 45-45-90 Triangle

Header: 30-60-90 Triangle

Q: Histidine is [...] charged at physiological pH
A: neutrally

Q: The units for charge (q) are [...]
A: coulombs C

Q: If the enthalpy of a reaction is negative, heat can be thought of as a [...]
A: product

Q: Two adjacent charges will experience a force with [...]
A: equal magnitude and opposite direction

Q: Charge distributes itself [...] on a [...]
A: uniformly; sphere made of a conducting material

Q: Any field can be represented by [...] that can [...] and when they are closer together means [...]
A: lines of force; never intersect; they are stronger

Q: Lines of force point from [...] charge
A: positive to negative

Q: There is [...] electric field [...] a uniformly charged sphere
A: no; inside

Q: An [...] is defined as the [...]
A: electric field; electrostatic force per unit charge

Q: The potential energy of a charge in an electric field is the [...] like in gravity (mgh)
A: force multiplied by the displacement (qE * d)

Potential energy of a charge in a field:

Q: Voltage is essentially the [...] of an electric field
A: potential energy per unit charge

Q: Equation for voltage of a field:
A: V = Ed

Q: A dipole is created by [...]
A: 2 opposite charges with equal magnitude

Q: The units for electric field are [...] or [...]
A: N/C; V/m

Q: Flow rate of a real fluid moving through a horizontal pipe with constant diameter is equal to [...]
A: Q = ΔP / R

Q: Moving charge is called [...]
A: current

Q: The units of current are [...] or [...]
A: Amps; Coulombs / second

Q: Current moves in the direction of [...] which is opposite of the [...]
A: positive charge; electrons

Q: A battery in a circuit provides the [...] needed to [...]
A: potential difference; maintain charge flow

Q: The quanititative measure of a substances resistance to the flow of charge is [...]
A: resistivity, ρ

Q: Resistance is measured in [...]
A: ohms, Ω

Q: Resistance is directly proportional to the [...] of an object and inversely proportional to its [...]
A: length; cross sectional area

Ohm's law:

Q: The internal resistance of a real battery can be simulated by [...]
A: putting a resistor next to the battery in a circuit diagram

Q: Current flows from the [...] to the [...] in a battery
A: cathode; anode

Q: Electrons flow from the [...] to the [...] in a battery
A: anode; cathode

What equation do you use to calculate the free energy of a battery?

Q: [...] temporarily store charge in a circuit
A: Capacitors

Q: A [...] consists of 2 plates separated by a dielectric
A: parallel plate capacitor

Q: In a parallel plate capacitor, each plate stores an equal amount of [...]
A: opposing charges

Q: The capacitance of a cap. is directly proportional to [...] an inversely proportional to [...]
A: its area; the distance between the plates

Q: Capacitance is the ability to store [...] per [...]
A: unit charge; voltage

Equation for capacitance:

Equation for potential energy stored in a capacitor:

What do the voltage graphs for a charging and discharging capacitor look like?

Q: Dielectric constant can thought to be a measure of [...]
A: how much energy it takes to generate an electric field in a substance

Q: Dielectric constant of a vacuum equals [...]
A: 1

Q: When resistors are in a series, it increases the [...], [...] resistance
A: effective length of the resistor; increasing

Q: When resistors are in parallel, it increases the [...], [...] resistance
A: effective cross sectional area of the resistor; decreasing

Q: When capacitors are in series, it [...], [...] capacitance
A: increases the effective distance between the plates; lowering

Q: When capacitors are in parallel, it [...], [...] capacitance
A: increases the area; increasing

Q: After a circuit has been on for a long time, the capacitors act like [...]
A: a broken circuit

Q: Initially, capacitors in a circuit act like [...]
A: a wire

Q: Magnetic field is measured in units of [...]
A: Tesla, T

Q: Only [...] charges create a [...]
A: moving; magnetic field

Q: Magnetic poles only exist as [...]
A: dipoles

Q: Lines of forces for magnetic fields point from [...], and the [...] follows the arrows in lines of force
A: north pole to south pole; north pole

Q: Changing an electric field generates a [...]
A: magnetic field

The force of a magnetic field on a charge (q) with velocity (v)

Q: Moving a wire through a [...] generates a [...]
A: magnetic field; current

Potential energy from 2 point charges:

Electric field from a point charge:

Voltage from a point charge:

Power from current and voltage:

Power from voltage and resistance:

Power from current and resistance:

Q: The voltage drop across two paths that run in parallel is always [...]
A: equal

Q: [...] refers to a wide range of internal mental activities like analyzing info generating ideas and problem solving
A: cognition

Q: [...] is the organization and identification of sensory inputs
A: Perception

Q: Computer-like models of cognitive functioning are known as [...]
A: information-processing models

Q: [...] models focus on [...] functions & [...] processing
A: Information-processing; input and output; serial + parallel

Q: The [...] is where information processing takes place
A: cerebral cortex

Q: The [...] is responsible for motor control, decision making, and long term memory storage
A: frontal lobe

Q: The [...] is responsible for tactile information through the [...]
A: parietal lobe; somatosensory cortex

Q: The [...] is responsible for processing visual input
A: occipital lobe

Q: The [...] process auditory and olfactory information
A: temporal lobe

Q: [...] stated that children develop congnitively by experimenting with their environment
A: Piaget's theory of cognitive development

Q: [...] was the first developmental psychologist to reconcile nature vs. nurture into an integrated theory of child development
A: Jean Piaget

Q: Jean Piaget developed the [...] of [...]
A: four universal stages; cognitive development

Q: The [...] stage of cognitive development occurs from [...], and is where children learn to [...], acting on and affecting their environment
A: sensorimotor; birth - 2 years; separate themselves mentally from the world

The Preoperational stage is from 2-7 years old and is where people have an egocentric world view and cannot take the perspective of others

The concrete operational stage is from 7-11 yrs is where people learn inductive reasoning (from specific fact to generalization) and conservation

The formal operational stage is from ages 11-older where people learn deductive reasoning and are capable of postconventional moral reasoning

Q: Piaget thought that development was an [...] process, while Lev Vygotsky contended that [...]
A: interally driven; caregivers have great influence over development

Q: Use of [...] is [...] among humans
A: language; universal

Q: The [...] states that language is a behavior that is aquired through [...]
A: learning theory of language development; operant conditioning

Q: The [...] states that language is gained through [...] given when words are spoken
A: learning theory of language development; attention and reinforcement

Q: The [...] development emphasises the [...] that play a role in language development, which occurs even in children [...]
A: nativist theory of language; innate biological mechanisms; lacking parental reinforcement

Q: The [...] emphasizes the language aquisition device, a neural cognitive system
A: nativist theory of language development

Q: The [...] states that children are motivated to expand their language in order to [...]
A: interactionist theory of language development; communicate and socialize with others

Q: The three theories of [...] are the [...].
A: language development; learning theory, nativist theory, and interactionist theory

Q: Language processing occurs in the [...]
A: left hemisphere of the cerebral cortex

Q: Broca's area is located in the [...] lobe, Wernicke's is located in the [...] lobe
A: frontal; temporal

Broca's area is responsible for speech production
Wernicke's area is responsible for understanding language

Header: Language areas of the brain

Q: [...] is the ability to understand and reason with complex ideas, adapt effectively to the environment, and learn from experience
A: Intelligence

Q: The scores from the two [...] scales are combined to give one score for this test
A: IQ test

Q: [...] is proven to correlate with [...], but not [...]
A: IQ; academic performance; future success

Q: Minorities tend to do worse on IQ tests because they have [...]
A: cultural biases

Q: [...] is the general intelligence factor and is a combination of [...] and [...] intelligence
A: g; fluid; crystallized

Q: Howard Gardner's [...] states that everyone has a different [...] which makes them suited for different tasks
A: Theory of Multiple Intelligences; variety of intelligences (musical, logical, social)

Q: IQ in fraternal twins raised in the same house was found to be [...] correlated than IQs of identical twins raised in different houses
A: less

Q: One of the ways [...] influences intelligence is through diseases such as downs syndrome or phenylketonuria
A: heredity

Prenatal environmental influences of intelligence include diseases like german measles and drug or alcohol use during pregnancy

Q: Socio-Economic status is a personal [...] factor that influences intelligence
A: environmental

Q: An [...] is a potentially time consuming step-by-step procedure that leads to a [...] solution to a problem
A: algorithm; definite

Q: [...] allow a new problem to be reduced to a previously know problem where [...] of how to determine the solution can be applied.
A: Analogies; prior knowledge

Q: Repeated, unsystematic attempts at solving a problem are a problem solving method called [...]
A: Trial & Error

Q: [...] are [...] that often lead to solution
A: Heuristics; mental shortcuts

Q: [...] is problem solving based on [...] rather than logic
A: Intuition; personal perceptions or feelings

Q: [...] are various tendencies to think in particular ways, which can be helpful but can also inhibit problem solving abilities
A: Cognitive biases

Q: [...] is when people value new material that supports a belief they already hold, while disregarding information that goes against their preconceived notions.
A: confirmation bias

Q: The phenomenon of [...] is when people [...], even when a [...] would suggest that they are incorrect
A: belief perserverance; hold on to their initial beliefs; rational argument

Q: [...] is a multifaceted experience that is connected to thought, physiology and behavior
A: Emotion

Q: The [...] element of emotion is a personal assessment of the significance of a particular situation
A: cognitive

Q: Emotions are often associated with the activation of the [...], leading to a [...] response
A: autonomic nervous system; physiological

Q: [...] impacts [...] by leading to urges to act in a certain way and thereby lead to actions
A: Emotion; behavior

Q: The [...] and [...] are the two most important players in the physiology of emotion
A: limbic system; autonomic nervous system

Q: The [...] is responsible for the emotional reactions of [...], and can even respond to an emotion laden stimulus without [...]
A: amygdala; fear and anger; conscious awareness of the stimulus

Q: The [brain structures] and [...] cause the recollection of emotional memories when similar emotions occur
A: amygdala; hippocampus

Q: The [...] is responsible for the conscious regulation of emotional states, and is critical in maintaince of [...] and decision making
A: prefrontal cortex; temperment

Q: The [...] controls the physiological response to emotion through its control of the SNS and PNS
A: hypothalamus

Q: The [...] states that an external stimulus elicits a physiological response, and that emotional experience depends on the recognition and interpretation of this physical reaction
A: James-Lange theory of emotion

Q: The [...] states that emotional "feelings" and physiological reactions to stimuli are experienced [...]
A: Cannon-Bard theory of emotion; simultaneously

Q: The [...] is the two-factor theory of emotion
A: Schacter-Singer theory of emotion

Q: The [...] suggests that identification of a reason for an initial physiological arousal takes into account both the [...] and [...]
A: Schacter-Singer theory of emotion; physiological response; situational cues

Q: Emotion is [...], or promotes an organism's ability to thrive
A: adaptive

Q: [...] refers to the tendency to assume a cause and effect relationship between correlated variables
A: Causation bias

Q: [...] is a psychological factor that provides a directional force or reason for [...]
A: Motivation; behavior

Q: [...] often originate from unsatisfied [...], which can be physiological or psychological
A: Motivations; needs

Q: An [...] is a biological, innate tendency to perform a certain behavior that leads to the [...]
A: instinct; fulfillment of a need

Q: [...] is psychological and physiological tension
A: Arousal

Q: [...] are urges to perform certain behaviors in order to resolve physiological arousal when that arousal is caused by the [...] of the organism
A: Drives; biological needs

Q: The theories of motivation include these four theories: [...]
A: drive reduction, incentive theory, cognitive theories, and need based theories (Dic'n)

Q: Drive reduction theory generally only applies to [...] drives
A: biological

Q: According to [...] people are motivated by external rewards
A: incentive theory

Incentive theory focuses on the psychological feeling of pleasure that comes with receiving a reward unlike operant conditioning which only focuses on the behavioral outcome

Q: An example of [...] theory is someone who is motivated to work only because he enjoys receiving a paycheck
A: incentive

Q: According to the [...], people behave in a way that they predict will yield the [...]
A: cognitive theories of motivation; most favorable outcome

Q: The good feeling that comes after completing a task is an [...]; receiving a reward for completing a task is an [...]
A: intrinsic motivation; extrinsic motivation

Q: According to [...], people are motivated by a desire to fulfill unmet needs
A: need-based theories of motivation

Header: Need-based theories of motivation

Q: The ABCs of attitude are the [...] components
A: affective, behavioral, and cognitive

Q: The [...] component of [...] is a person's feelings or emotions about an object, person, or event.
A: Affective; attitude

Q: The [...] of attitude is the influence that attitudes have on how you act
A: Behavioral component

Q: The [...] of attitude is the beliefs or knowledge about a specific object of interest
A: Cognitive component

Q: The [...] is based on the premise that people are much more likely to agree to a large request if they first agree to a smaller one.
A: foot-in-the-door phenomenon

Q: Behavior can also shape attitude via [...]: where once you felt akward in a position you eventually become more comfortable in it
A: role-playing

Q: When attitudes are framed [...], they are more likely to influence peoples [...]
A: positively; behaviors

Cognitive dissonance is conflict or inconsistencies between internal attitudes and external behaviors

Q: [...] states that people have an inherent desire to avoid the internal discomfort caused by [...]
A: Cognitive dissonance theory; cognitive dissonance

Q: According to [...] people either change their attitudes toward a situation, change their perception of the behavior, or modify the behavior
A: cognitive dissonance theory

Q: The [...] takes an information processing approach to [...], describing the interaction between an argument and relevant psychological factors of the person who receives the argument.
A: elaboration likelihood model; persuasion

Q: According to the [...], there are two routes to attitude formation and change, defined by the chance that the person who receives an argument will elaborate on it by [...]
A: elaboration likelihood model; generating his or her own thoughts and opinions

Q: [...] occurs when an individual does not think deeply to evaluate an argument
A: Peripheral route processing

Q: [...] occurs when an individual does think deeply and even elaborates on the argument that is presented
A: Central route processing

Q: People often use [...] to evaluate an argument when they are deeply invested in something or very knowledgable about it.
A: central route processing

Q: To appeal to someone who is using [...], one must provide a strong argument that follows logic and reason
A: central route processing

Q: Both strong and weak arguments can appeal to someone using [...]
A: peripheral route processing

Q: [...] approaches behavior change from a [...] in contrast to the intentional [...] described by the elaboration likelihood model
A: Social-cognitive theory; social learning perspective; persuasion

Q: [...] that might change [...] include the foot-in-the-door strategy, role-playing, and some instances of relieving cognitive dissonance
A: Behavior changes; attitudes

Q: [...] that might change attitudes include a speaker who is more credible and a a stronger and more persuasive argument
A: Characteristics of the message

Q: [...] of an attitude change include someone with deep knowledge requiring a stronger, logical argument; and children being easier to persuade by appealing to emotion
A: Characteristics of the target

Q: [...] that may change attitude include the medium of communication, where [...] is most effective, and other things like in-group/out-group identification and groupthink
A: Social factors; face-to-face

Q: [...] is the strain experienced when an organisms equilibrium is disrupted and it must adapt
A: Stress

Q: The source of stress, or stressor, can range from major [...] like going to college or the birth of a child, to [...] such as natural disasters or war
A: personal events; cataclysmic events

Q: People's [...], or [...] of the situations that triggered stress, can account for the variability in the ability of people to respond to stress
A: cognitive appraisals; personal interpretations

Q: A [...] is the evaluation of a situation for any potential threat; a [...] is an evaluation of one's own ability to deal with this threat
A: primary appraisal; secondary appraisal

Q: The [...] responses to stress come from [...] released from the adrenal medulla, and [...] released from the adrenal cortex
A: physiological; NE and epi; cortisol

Q: [...] can help relieve stress by channeling its physiological effects like increased glucose to muscle and vasoconstriction into activity
A: Exercise

Q: [...] relieves stress by helping people acheive a sense of purpose, calm, and optimism
A: Spirituality

Q: [...] theory involves behavior change that is not only influenced by internal and external drives, but also informed by [...]
A: Social-cognitive; observation of the actions of others

Q: The most basic emotions and facial expressions do not differ between [...]
A: cultures

Q: [theory] describe situations where thought processes drive behavior
A: Cognitive theories of motivation

Q: While particularly [...] is associated with negative outcomes, there are no data to support the idea that particularly [...] impacts [...]
A: low SES; high SES; cognitive abilities

Q: Lysine's amine group has [...] at physiological pH
A: 3 hydrogens and a positive charge

Q: Mechanical waves [...] to travel
A: require a medium

Q: [...] waves do not require a [...] to travel
A: Electromagnetic; medium

What does a transverse wave look like?

What does a longitudinal wave look like?

Q: Sound waves are [...] waves
A: longitudinal

Q: The [...] of a wave is determined by the [...]
A: velocity; medium

equation for velocity, frequency and wavelength of a wave

Q: [...] is the distance from any point in the wave to the point where [...]
A: Wavelengh; it begins to repeat itself

Q: The [...] of a wave is the number of wavelengths [...]
A: frequency; that pass a fixed point in one second

Q: The frequency of a wave is determined by the [...]
A: source

Q: The [...] of a wave is the time it takes the wave to [...]
A: period (T); travel one wavelength

Equation for period:

Q: The 2 factors that determine the velocity of waves travelling through a medium are the medium's [...] and [...]
A: bulk modulus; density
Extra: c = sqrt(bulk modulus / density)

Q: The bulk modulus is a measure of the [...]
A: elasticity of the medium

Header: Displacement vs Position for a wave

Header: Displacement vs. Time for a wave

Q: The amplitude of a wave is measured from the [...] to the [...]
A: x axis; peak

Q: [...] or [...] are the units for [...]
A: Watts; J / s; Power

Equation for power:

Q: [...] is a measure of [...] has units of [...]
A: Intensity; Power / Area; Watts / m^2

Formula for decibels:

Header: Practical Decibel scale

Header: Open-Closed tube / string

Header: Open-Open tube / string

Simplified Doppler Effect equation:

Wavelength change from Doppler Effect:

Q: A radar gun must double the magnitude of the Doppler Effect because the [...]
A: wave reflecting off of the object is effectively another source

Doppler Effect with reflection:

Equation for beat frequency:

Equation for mach number:

Q: [...] is proportional to the square of [...] and [...]
A: Sound intensity; Amplitude; frequency

Header: Sines and cosines of common angles

graph of y=mx

graph of y = x^n

graph of y = x^-n aka y = 1/x^n

Graph of y = nlogx . Where is the x intercept?

for y = mx+b how is b represented?

For y = x^n + b how is b represented?

Q: For y = 1 / x^n + b how is b represented?
A: It's the horizontal asymptote

Q: In y = nlogx + b what does b represent?
A: The y coordinate of log(x) where x = 1
x = 1, b = 2
y = log(x) + b
y = log(1) + 2
y = 0 + 2
y = 2

Q: Electromagnetic waves are produced by [...]
A: accelerating charges

Q: If a charge oscillates a frequency f, the emitted [...] will have frequency [...]
A: EM wave; f

Q: Electric fields and magnetic fields oscillate [...] to each other and to the [...].
A: perpendicular; direction of propagation

Q: Light is emitted by an atom's electrons when [...] and the wavelength of this light is determined by the equation [...]
A: they move from a higher to lower energy state; E = hf

Q: Some atoms emit light when bombarded with [...] like [...]
A: high energy particles; electrons

Q: Fluorescence occurs when [...] and it emits a [...] when [...]
A: high energy photons bump an electron into a higher energy level; photon; it returns to the lower energy level

Thermal agitation of a solid results in incandescent light because the electrons in will jump between energy levels and between atoms

Q: Incandescent light contains [...], of which, the [...] is proportional to the [...]
A: many frequencies; dominant frequency; temperature

Q: The wavelengths λ of visibile light range from [...] for violet to [...] for red
A: 390nm; 700nm

Q: Light with wavelength λ less than 390nm is called [...]
A: ultraviolet light

Q: Light with wavelength λ greater than 700nm is called [...]
A: infrared light

Q: The speed of light in vacuo is -> [...]
A: c = 3 x 10^8 m/s

Q: The frequency of light can be calculated from wavelength using the equation [...]
A: f = c / λ

Q: Waves that are the most likely to be absorbed by a medium have [...] that match [...]
A: frequencies; the resonant frequencies of the medium

Q: Light is [...] when its EM and Mag. fields are [...]
A: polarized; aligned in a particular way

Q: The polarization of light is in reference to its [...] field
A: Electric

Circularly polarized light consists of electric fields of constant magnitude that change direction in a rotary manner.

Q: A reflection off a less dense medium results in an [...] reflection, a reflection off of a more dense medium results in an [...] reflection
A: upright; inverted

Q: [...] occurs when waves bend when passing through a medium
A: Refraction

Q: The index of refraction is the [...]
A: ratio of lights speed in a vacuum to its speed in the medium

Q: Equation for index of refraction: [...]
A: n = c / v

Q: velocity of light in a medium -> [...]
A: v = c / n (index of refraction)

Q: The indices of refraction for water and glass are [...]
A: 1.3 and 1.5

Q: Snell's law predicts the [...]
A: extent to which a change in speed will bend a light ray

Snell's law:

Header: Angles

Q: If the medium a wave is refracting into has a lower index of refraction the [...]
A: θ_refraction will be greater than θ_incidence

Q: When light crosses into a new medium the [...] of the light change because the [...] but the [...] remains the same
A: wavelength and velocity; velocity through the medium changes; frequency

Q: The angle of refraction for total internal reflection is [...]
A: 90°

Q: The critical angle is the [...]
A: minimum angle for total internal reflection

Q: sin(90*) = [...]
A: 1

Q: The speed of light in a given medium depends on the extent to which [...]
A: it is absorbed and re-emitted by that medium

Most objects absorb higher frequencies of light better than lower frequencies, so blue light usually travels more slowly than red light through a medium

Q: [...] takes advantage of the different velocities through a medium for different frequencies to split out each frequency
A: Chromatic dispersion

Q: If light reflects off of a [...] medium, its [...] changes by [...]
A: more dense; phase; 1/2 λ

Q: If a thin film has a thickness of [...] it will result in [...] of the light because [...]
A: 1/2 λ; destructive interference; the reflected light will have a 1/2 λ phase shift and the light that reflects of the back wall of the film will have no phase shift

Q: When d = 1/2 λ, the light on path will travel [...] and will [...]
A: 1 λ; destructively interfere with the light on path α

Q: The spreading of light that occurs when a wave bends around the edges of an object or opening is known as [...]
A: diffraction

Q: Electrons are used for electron microscopy because [...]
A: their wavelengths are shorter than those of visible light so they diffract less

Q: Longer wavelengths of waves [...] less but [...] more
A: refract; diffract

Q: Diffraction is most significant when [...] is [...] than the [...] of the wave
A: the object or opening; smaller; wavelength

The difference in distance travelled by r1 and r2 is

Q: In a double slit experiment, constructive interference bands will be observed when pathlengths differ by [...] and destructive interference will be observed when pathlengths differ by [...]
A: λ; 1/2  λ

Q: [...] consists of a series of small slits, called rulings, that [...]
A: Diffraction grating; diffract a light source into its component colors

Q: [...] diffraction uses X rays because [...]
A: X ray; their wavelengths are on the order of 1 Å, which is the same as the atoms they diffract off of

Q: sqrt(3) = [...]
A: 1.7

Q: Converging mirrors and lenses create [...] while diverging ones create [...]
A: real images; virtual images

Q: When light encounters a mirror it is reflected at an angle equal to the [...]
A: angle of incidence

Q: For a mirror the object and observer on on the [...] side and they are on [...] side of a lens
A: same; opposite

Q: The [...] is where parallel light rays [...] or [...]
A: focal point; converge (real image); appear to converge (virtual image)

Q: The center of curvature of a mirror is the [...]
A: center point of the sphere it is cut out of

Q: Equation for focal point compared to radius of curvature: [...]
A: f = R / 2

Q: The focal point of a [...] is [location]
A: convex mirror; behind the mirror

Q: A lens has 2 focal points (one in front, one behind) because it has [...]
A: 2 refractive surfaces

Q: For a lens, the focal point is affected by the refractive indices of the [...]
A: lens and the medium surrounding the lens

Q: [...] is measured in [...]
A: Lens power; diopters, m^-1

Q: Equation for lens power: [...]
A: P = 1 / f (focal distance)

Q: For the lens power equation, the focal length must be given in [...]
A: meters

Q: A [...] lens is a [...] lens
A: convex; converging

Q: [...] lenses are [...] lenses with [...]
A: Diverging; concave; periphery thicker than the center

Q: The 2 types of images are [4 part definition] and [...]
A: real, inverted, on the same side as the observer, and positive; virtual, upright, on the opposite side, and negative

Q: Real image pnemonic: [...]
A: EYE am POSITIVE the REAL is INVERTED

Q: Virtual image pnemonic [...]
A: Not EYE side, NEGATIVE, NOT REAL, NOT INVERTED

Q: If an object is within the focal distance of a convex lens, the [...] rules apply
A: diverging lens

Q: A diverging lens or mirror can create [...] images and a converging lens or mirror can create [...] images
A: virtual; both virtual and real

The thin lens equation MCAT style:

Focal distance is positive for converging lenses and negative for diverging lenses

Q: Object distance for single lens systems is [...]
A: always positive

Q: Image distance is positive for [...] and negative for [...]
A: real images; virtual images

Magnification equation:

Q: An image that is smaller the object has a magnification magnitude that is [...]
A: less than one

Q: An image that is larger than an object has a magnification magnitude [...]
A: greater than one

Q: Diverging mirrors and lenses always form [size] images
A: smaller

Q: Converging mirrors and lenses form [size] images unless the object is [...]
A: larger; outside of the radius of curvature

Q: Converging lenses have [...] focal points. Diverging lenses have [...] focal points
A: positive; negative

Q: When objects are on the "right" side, object distance is always [...]
A: positive

Q: As long as objects are where they belong, diverging lenses and mirrors make [...], [...], [...] images
A: negative; virtual; upright

Converging lenses and mirrors make real, inverted, positive images unless the object is inside the focal point

Q: [...] occur because [...]
A: Chromatic aberrations; light of higher frequencies focuses closer than that of lower frequencies

Q: [...] occur because rays [...]
A: Spherical aberrations; further out from the center of a lens focus more closely

Q: To adjust for spherical aberrations, have the rays [...]
A: primarily go through the center of the lens

Q: Combinations of lenses differ from single lens systems because the [...]
A: objects are not always where they belong

Q: To work with multiple lens systems, use the [...] as the [...]
A: image of the first lens; object of the second lens

Q: Multiple lens systems have magnifications equal to [...]
A: M = m_1m_2 , the product of their magnifications

Q: Multiple lens systems have effective power equal to [...]
A: Peff = P1 + P2, the sum of their powers

Q: The human eye uses the [...] for most of its light bending and the [...] for fine adjustments
A: cornea; lens

Q: [...] is the result of the eye being unable to [...], leaving the focal point [...]
A: Farsightedness; bend light of close objects far enough; behind the retina

Q: Nearsightedness is the result of the eye [...], resulting in a focal point that is [...]
A: bending light from far objects too far; in front of the retina

Q: Nearsightedness is corrected by [...] accounting for the [...]
A: diverging lenses; over-bending of the rays from far objects

Q: Farsightedness is corrected by [...] that [...] in to account for the eyes inability to
A: converging lenses; bend the light from close objects in

Q: Equation for length and wavelength of Open-Open tube / string: [...]
A: L = nλ / 2 where n = 1, 2, 3

Q: Equation for length and wavelength of an Open-Closed tube [...]
A: L = nλ / 4, where n = 1, 3, 5...

Q: [...] is the loss of a [...], or [...]
A: Alpha decay; helium nucleus; 2 protons and 2 neutrons

In beta decay, a neutron turns into a proton and electron, and the electron gets emitted as well as a neutrino

Q: [...] are both considered to be [...]
A: Positrons and electrons; beta particles

Positron emission is a type of beta decay where a positron is emitted when a proton becomes a neutron

Q: All forms of beta decay are simply the [...]
A: breakdown or formation of a single neutron within the nucleus

Electron capture is the capture of an electron and destruction of a proton to create a neutron along with emission of a gamma ray

Q: Formal charge = [...]
A: # of valence electrons - sticks - dots (individual electrons)

Q: Elements will often adopt an electron configuration with a [...] – the configuration found in the [...]
A: complete octet; noble gases

Q: Newton’s third law can be expressed as: FA on B = [...]
A: - FB on A

Q: N2 in general is a very [...] gas
A: inert

Q: The three simple circuit power equations are [...]
A: P = IV, P = I^2R, or P = V^2/R

Q: [...] can be used to [...]
A: Ozone; cleave alkenes

Q: Transferases [...]
A: move functional groups from one molecule to another

Q: Lyases [...] without using [...]
A: break molecules into two smaller molecules; water or redox reactions

Q: In IR-spec, the C=O group is found as a [...], and the OH group is found as a [...], and NH is found as a [...]
A: sharp peak aroun 1700cm-1; broad peak from ~3000-3500; pointy peak around 3300cm-1

Q: In the electron transport chain, electrons are passed from species with [...] reduction potential to those with [...] reduction potential
A: less positive; more positive

Q: [...] binds to the [...] of the lac operon
A: Allolactose; repressor

Q: Amides are stable because they exhibit [...]
A: resonance stabilization

Q: [...] explains the loss of genetic diversity when a [...]
A: Founder effect; new poulation is founded with a small population

Q: The Y chromosome might experience a higher mutation rate because [...]
A: sperm undergo many divisions during gametogenesis

Q: The [...] is the [...] in electrolysis and electrophoresis
A: anode; positive electrode

Q: The formation of a alkene from an alkane is an [...]
A: oxidation

Q: [...] consist of analysis of participants over time.
A: Longitudinal studies

Q: A [...] is one which explains the [...]
A: mediating variable; relationship between two other variables

Q: A [...] is one that influences the [...] between two other variables
A: moderator variable; strength of a relationship

Q: Drive-reduction theories suggest that depression stems from a reduction in the [...]
A: motivating forces of arousal

Q: [...] describes the number of [...] during a specific time interval
A: Incidence; new cases of a disease

Q: [...] examine a group of individuals at one point in time
A: Cross-sectional designs

Q: [...] asserts that people develop understandings and knowledge of the world through [...]
A: Social constructionism; interactions with other people

Q: [...] occurs when participants drop out of a long-term experiment or study
A: Attrition bias

Q: [...] refers to a type of bias related to how people are chosen to participate
A: Selection bias

Q: [...] is the tendency of survey respondents to answer questions in a manner that will be viewed favorably by others
A: Social desirability bias

Q: [...] is a type of bias related to memory
A: Reconstructive bias

Q: [...] is a negative type of stress that builds over time and is bad for your body
A: Distress

Q: [...] is a positive type of stress that happens when you perceive a situation as challenging, but motivating.
A: eustress
Extra: Eustress is usually enjoyable!

Q: [...] happens when you are exposed to something stressful, but it doesn’t actively or directly affect you.
A: Neustress
Extra: For example, news about a natural disaster on the other side of the world may be very stressful, but your body doesn’t perceive that stress as good or bad for you so you aren’t affected.

Q: [...] happens when a person in a group loses awareness and acts in a way that they wouldn’t normally act if they were alone
A: Deindividuation

Q: [...] is when someone disagrees with behavior but publicaly conforms
A: Compliance

Q: [...] refers to a situation where the medical student would conform to a behavior because they like or respect the person who exhibits it.
A: Identification

Q: [...] refers to a situation where a medical student would conform by turning to others in their group for information about what is correct
A: Informational social influence

Q: There are three core components of [...] – physiological arousal (how your body reacts), expressive displays (how you express these), and subjective experiences (how you feel and interpret your them, which is extremely personal and subjective)
A: emotion

Q: The [...] theory states that emotion processing has three distinct steps: [...], in that order.
A: Schachter-Singer; physiological arousal, cognitive interpretation of the situation, and the experience of the emotion

Q: [...] reinforcement schedules tend to produce the highest response rates that are the most resistant to extinction
A: Variable-ratio

Q: The [...] describes the phenomenon in which it is harder for an individual to reconcile different pieces of information relating to colors than information that is consonant
A: Stroop effect

Q: [...] is the degree to which a [...].
A: Construct validity; test measures what it claims, or purports, to be measuring

Q: [...] refers to whether a variable is able to [...]
A: Criterion validity; predict a certain outcome

Q: [...] refers to the generalizability of the research to settings beyond this study
A: External validity

Q: [which of the big sociological theories] holds the view that an individual’s experiences influence his perceptions
A: Symbolic interactionism

Q: [...] means that living standards are increasing in real terms: you are better off than your parents and your children will be better off than you
A: Absolute mobility

Q: Self-reported information is always vulnerable to [...]
A: subjective bias

Changes in behavior based on race or gender or something else are discrimination. When it affects only attitudes, it is prejudice

Q: [...] is the type of memory related to facts and information
A: Semantic memory

Q: [...] is a type of memory related to personal experiences
A: Episodic memory

Q: [...] is a type of memory related to actions or behaviors, like placing an IV or suturing a wound
A: Procedural memory

Q: [...] is a type of memory that is formed based on your associations between two things
A: Conditioned memory

Q: New ideas are most likely to spread through the type of social influence known as [...]
A: minority influence
Extra: When a new idea arises, it is automatically a minority opinion. This idea can then be spread through the influence of the minority on others accepting this view

Q: In a concentration cell the electrons flow from the solution with [...] to the solution with [...]
A: low ion concentration (high elemental conc. anode); high ion concentration (low elemental conc. cathode)

Q: Upon absorbing a photon of light, retinal is converted to the [...] form
A: all-trans

Q: Night vision is accomplished by the [...], which are more sensitive to [...], and are more concentrated in the [...]
A: rods; dim light and motion; periphery of the retina

Q: [...] require abundant light and are responsible for [...], and are more concentrated in the [...]
A: Cones; color vision and high acuity vision; fovea

Q: [...] explains why a certain area of the brain is activated when looking at a face, a different area is activated when looking at these letters, etc.
A: Feature detection theory

Q: [...] are depth cues that depend on [...] and are most important when objects are [...]
A: Binocular cues; infromation received from both eyes; close to us in our visual field.

Q: The minimum stimulus intensity required to activate a sensory receptor 50% of the time is called the [...]
A: absolute threshold

Q: The [...] is the minimum noticable difference between any two sensory stimuli 50% of the time
A: difference threshold

Q: [...] dictates that two stimuli must differ by [...] in order for their difference to be perceptible
A: Weber's law; a constant proportion

Q: According to the gestalt principle of [...], when attempting to identify an object, we first identify its [...], which then allows us to [...]
A: emergence; outline; figure out what the object is

Q: The [...] predicts that objects moving in the same direction or moving in synchrony are perceived as a group or unit
A: gestalt law of common fate

Q: The gestalt [...] predicts that we will perceive things as a complete, logical entity because our brains will fill in the gaps in the information
A: law of closure

Q: The gestalt [...] is the tendency of ambiguous images to pop back and forth unstably between alternative interpretations in our brains
A: principle of multistability

Q: [...] begins with the sensory receptors and works up to the complex integration of information occuring in the brain
A: Bottom-up processing

Q: [...] occurs when the brain applies experience and expectations to interpret sensory information
A: Top-down processing

Header: Tyeps of skew

Q: [...] suggests that a [...] need creates an [...] state that drives the organism to reduce that need by engaging in some behavior
A: Drive-reduction theory; physiological; aroused

Incentives are external stimuli, objects, and events in the environment that either help induce or discourage certain behaviors

Q: The [...] is the primary control center for detecting changes in temperature and receives input from skin receptors
A: hypothalamus

Q: A [...] is a concept or practice that is a construct of a group
A: social construct

Q: [...] is a world view in which one’s own culture and traditions are seen as inherently superior to those of other people
A: Ethnocentrism

Q: [...] are the intended and obvious consequences of a structure; [...] are uninteded or less recognizable consequences of a structure
A: Manifest functions; latent functions
Extra: Example for hospital:
Manifest - to cure sick people
Latent - improve economy by providing jobs

Q: [...] views society as a competition for limited resources
A: Conflict theory

Q: [...] examines the relationship between individuals and society by focusing on communication, the exchange of information through [...]
A: Symbolic interactionism; language and symbols

Q: Due to [...], confidence can serve as a self-fulfillling prophecy
A: response expectancy

Q: A confounding variable is a variable that is correlated with the [...] and has a [...] effect on the [...] variable
A: independent variable; causal; dependent

Q: [...] is the degree to which a [...] is demonstrated
A: Internal validity; causal relationship between the independent and dependent varaibles

Q: [...] is the process of complying because we want to do [...] and we feel like others [...]
A: Informative social influence; the right thing; know something I don't

Q: [...] is apparent when even if you know what is right, you do what the group does to avoid [...]
A: Normative social influence; social rejection

Q: [...] is when you outwardly change but inside you maintain your core beliefs
A: Public conformity

Q: [...] is motivated by the desire to seek reward or avoid punishment for disobeying authority
A: Compliance

Q: An example of [...] is when people act or dress in a certain way to be like someone famous
A: identification

Q: [...] endures as long as there is still a good relationship with the person you are modelling
A: Identification

Q: [...] is when an idea belief or behavior has been integrated into [...]. It is [...] than other types of conformity
A: Internalization; one's own values; stronger

Q: [...] in a study are actors who are told what to do
A: Confederates

Q: [...] study involved 3 lines where one was obviously longer than the others. Individually, people would get the answer right 99% of the time, but when confederates chose something obviously wrong, the participants conformed and gave the wrong answer more than 33% of the time.
A: Solomon Asch's

Q: [...] experiment was the one with the shocking
A: Milgram's

Q: The [...] is when people believe that good things happen to good people and bad things happen to bad people
A: just world phenomenon

Q: [...] are how much of a behavior was influence by how they thought the experimenter wanted them to behave
A: Demand characteristics

Q: The [...] is when someone's anger can lead them to become prejudiced
A: frustration agression hypothesis

Q: [...] –upsurge in prejudice when people are deprived of something they feel entitled to.
A: Hypothesis of Relative Deprivation

Q: [...] is the [...], can result in hyperorality (put things in mouth a lot), hypersexuality, and disinhibited behavior.
A: Kluver-Bucy syndrome; bilateral destruction of amygdala

Q: The [...] plays a key role in memory, converting [...]
A: Hippocampus; short term memory to long term memory

Q: The [...] says that we don't feel emotion until we're able to cognitively identify a reason for the situation
A: Shacter-Singer theory of emotion

Q: The [...] says that stress arises less from actual events and more from our interpretation of events
A: appraisal theory of stress

Q: The normal blood glucose concentration is [...]
A: 5.6mM

The GLUT 2 transporter is:
Located in the liver and pancreas
has a Km of 15mM, compared to normal glucose concentration of 5mM
Main function is to take glucose from hepatic portal vein for energy storage

GLUT 4 is:
Located in adipose tissue and muscles
Has a Km of 5, meaning it is always letting glucose through
Has its expression increased by insulin to let more glucose in

Q: All cells are capable of carrying out [...]
A: glycolysis

Q: Glycolysis releases energy through [...] and [...]
A: 2 substrate level phosphorlyations; 1 oxidation reaction to make NADH

Hexokinase and glucokinase immediately phosphorlyate glucose when it enters the cell to prevent it from escaping through GLUTs, which can't transport G6P

Q: [...] is located in all cells, while [...] is located in liver and pancreas beta cells
A: Hexokinase; glucokinase

PFK1 is inihibited by ATP and citrate which signal high energy availability in the cell, and induced by AMP which signals low energy availability.
This enzyme is the rate limiting enzyme of glycolysis

Q: PFK2 transforms [...] and is induced by [...] and inhibited by [...].
A: F6P into F2,6BP; insulin; glucagon

Q: PFK2 is important because it [...] even if [...]
A: lets liver cells continue glycolysis to create products for the other pathways; there's already an abundance of energy

Q: PFK1 catalyzes [...] with [...]
A: F6P -> F1,6BP; ATP -> ADP

Fructose structure

Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate dehydrogenase catalyzes this reaction:

3-Phosphoglycerate kinase catalyzes this reaction, which is an example of ?

Q: Pyruvate kinase catalyzes this reaction, which is an example of ?
A: PEP -> Pyruvate
ADP -> ATP
Substrate level phosphorylation

Pyruvate kinase is activated by F1,6BP from the PFK1 step, and this is an example of feed-forward activation

Header: Glycolysis enzymes

Q: The enzymes [...] and [...] metabolize substrate level phosphorylations
A: 3-phosphoglycerate kinase; pyruvate kinase

Q: [...] catalyzes the production of NADH in glycolysis
A: Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate dehydrogenase

Q: Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in the [...], which produces ATP by reducing [...]
A: electron transport chain; O2 to H2O

Q: [...] is the process of transferring sensory information into our memory system
A: Encoding

Q: [...] is where information is maintained temporarily as part of a particular mental activity
A: Working memory

Q: The [...] occurs when someone attemps to memorize a series, and its easier to memorize the beginning and end of the list, which are examples of the [...] and [...] respectively
A: serial position effect; primacy effect; recency effect

Q: The [...] is part of [...] model of working memory that allows for the repetition of verbal information to aid with encoding it into memory
A: phonological loop; Alan Baddeley's

Q: [...] is a strategy in which information to be remembered is organized into discrete groups of data
A: Chunking
Extra: Example is remembering a phone number by each part

Q: The [...] indicates that it is easier to remember words with associated images than either words or images alone
A: dual coding hypothesis

Q: The [...] involves imagining moving through a familiar place, such as your home, and in each place, [...]
A: method of loci; leaving a visual representation of a topic to be remembered

Q: It is easier to remember things that are personally relevent because of the [...]
A: self-reference effect

Q: [...] is brief photographic memory for visual information, which decays in a [...]
A: Iconic memory; few tenths of a second

Q: [...] is memory for sound, which lasts for about [...]
A: Echoic memory; 3-4 seconds
Extra: Echo echo echo 3 secos

Q: The recall capacity for an adult is typically around [...] items
A: 7 +- 2

Q: Information in short term memory is only retained for around [...], unless it is actively processed so that it can be transferred into long-term memory
A: 20 seconds
Extra: shorty twenty

Q: Working memory is where you [...], while short term memory is where [...]
A: bring memories that you need at that particular moment; new information sought to be remembered resides temporarily
Extra: You bring equations into working memory for finding the area of a triange; Short-term is if you're trying to remember someone's name

Q: Explaining a concept involves [...] while not having practiced it indicates a lack of [...]
A: explicit, or declarative memory; implicit or procedural memory

Q: [...] occurs when previously learned behaviors are suddenly combined in unique ways
A: Insight learning

Q: [...] occurs when previously unseen behavior can manifest quickly when required
A: Latent learning

Q: Alcohols disrupt [...] enzyme structure
A: seconary, tertiary, and quaternary

Q: Magnets always have a [...] magnetic field
A: non-zero

Q: There are [...] cm^2 in 1 m^2
A: 10,000
Extra: You need to square the conversion. (1m/100cm)(1m/100cm)

Q: The units for voltage are [...]
A: Joules / Coloumb, J/C, Volts

Q: Indirectly proportional means that when x increases [...]. The equation for this is [...]
A: y decreases; y = 1/x

Phase diagram for water:

Q: Any molecule with a [...] solid to liquid phase diagram line will float in its liquid.
A: negatively sloped

Q: Diverging lenses always [...] image size
A: reduce

Q: The more negative the standard reduction, the more eager the metal is to undergo [...]
A: oxidation (it's a reducing agent)

Q: Magnetic fields can only interact with [...] charges
A: moving

Q: Methylation in epigentics functions to [...] and it happens on [...] bases
A: prevent the transcription of the DNA; cytosine

Q: Astrocytes help support neurons and [...]
A: maintain ion balance

Q: [...] move cerebrospinal fluid throughout the ventricles of the brain and spinal canal using cilia
A: Ependymal cells

Q: Under anaerobic conditions pyruvate cannot be moved into the [...] and remains in the [...]
A: mitochondria; cytoplasm

Q: The 5' guanine cap is also known as the [...]
A: methylguanine sequence

Q: Motor proteins move from the [...] at the [...] to the [...] at the poles during metaphase
A: kinectochore; centromere; centrioles

Q: Cytokinesis is primarily executed by [...] and not [...]
A: microfilaments; microtubules

Q: The [...] creates the skeleton, muscles, lymphatic system, blood heart and kidneys
A: mesoderm

Q: The [...] forms the skin, nervous system, and sensing organs
A: ectoderm

Q: The [...] forms the linings of the digestive and respiratory tract and the liver, pancreas, thymus, and thyroid
A: endoderm

Q: Secretion in the kidney happens mostly in the [...]
A: tubules

Q: The [...] is the part of the lymphatic system that transmits the lymph into the vena cava
A: thoracic duct

Q: Complement moves through the body in [...]
A: serum

Q: In reasearch design, to prove causality, the independent variable must [...] dependent variable
A: occur temporally before the

Q: [...] are the changes seen at a neuron after receiveing the same stimulus over and over
A: Long term potentiation

Q: Glutamate is an [...] neurotransmitter
A: excitatory

Q: The cognitive component of emotion is the [...], or [...], of a certain event
A: thought; cognitive appraisal

Q: Insights on extracurricular skills for sucess that are not explicity taught in the classroom are referred to as the [...], and are not available to people of [...]
A: hidden curriculum; low SES

Q: [...] is a status that a person involuntarily takes on at any point throughout life, even at birth
A: Ascribed status
Extra: Ex. Being born into nobility

Q: [...] is a status that must be earned and accepted over time.
A: Acheived status

Q: [...] is a problem solving strategy that uses models
A: Abstraction

Q: [...] is concerned with how social change and how society's status quo (the thesis) interact with social movements for new ideology (the antithesis) and their eventual compromise and adoption of a new policy known as the [...]
A: Conflict theory; synthesis

Q: [...] is the idea that social problems are caused by rapidly advancing technology and society's attempts to reconcile the use of that technology with its ideals
A: Culture lag

Q: [...] refers to potential benefits and costs of social networks
A: Social capital

Q: The [...] is when individuals act differently when observed
A: Hawthorne effect

Q: The hippocampus is a member of the [...]
A: limbic system

Q: The structures that are involved in emotion are the [...], the [...], and the [...]
A: limbic system (including the amygdala); prefrontal cortex; hypothalamus

Q: The sleep stage most associated with consciousness is [...]
A: Stage 1

Q: [...] is the stage of the sleep cycle that always has paralysis
A: REM sleep

Q: Production of sperm occurs in the [...] whenever the [...] get stimulated by [...]
A: seminiferous tubules; sertoli cells; FSH

Q: Lydig cells in the interstitial tissue around the seminiferous tubules release [...] when stimulated by [...]
A: testosterone; LH

Header: Spermatogenesis

Q: [...] is what stimulates the germ cells to differentiate into sperm
A: Testosterone

Q: The [...] of a sperm contains lysozymes to enter the egg
A: acrosome

Q: [...] cells lack cytoplasm
A: Sperm

Q: Sperm cells are ejected into the seminiferous tubule lumen and moved to the [...] to mature
A: epididymis

Q: Sperm become activated through [...] in the vagina
A: capacitation

Header: Male reproductive anatomy

Q: Female eggs are arrested as [...] in [what stage] at birth
A: primary oocytes; prophase I

Q: FSH stimulates the growth of [...] around the primary oocyte. These cells secrete [...] fluid around the oocyte
A: ganulosa cells; zona pellucida

A growing primary follicle consists of theca cells surrounding granulosa cells that surround the zona pellucia and the oocyte

Upon stimulate by LH, theca cells secrete androgen, which is converted to estradiol by the granulosa cells in the presence of FSH and secreted into the blood

Q: Just before ovulation, the [...] occurs when a large increase in [...] causes a large increase in [...]
A: leutal surge; estradiol; LH

Q: Ovulation occurs and the egg, which is now a [...] oocyte in [...], is released and caught by the [...] that pull it into the fallopian tube
A: secondary; meiosis II; fimbrae

After ovulation the remaining follicle becomes the corpus luteum, which secretes estradiol and progesterone for 2 weeks to maintain the uterine lining for a potential pregnancy

Q: The Ovarian Cycle is split into 2 parts by ovulation, the [...] and [...] phases
A: follicular; leutal

Q: Menstruation is stopped by the increase in [...] secreted from the follicle
A: estradiol

Header: Ovarian and Uterine Cycles

Q: When a sperm has reached the egg, their cell membranes fuse causing the [...], which blocks other sperm from fertilizing the eggs
A: cortical reaction

Q: Upon fertilization, the egg undergoes [...], shedding another [...] and becoming an [...]
A: meiosis II; polar body; ovum

Q: [...] occurs while the fertilized egg is still in the fallopian tube, dividing from 2-4-8 cells, which are all [...]
A: Cleavage; totipotent

Q: When the outer cells of the [...] implant in the uterine wall, they form the [...], while the inner cells go on to become the [...]
A: blastocyst; placenta; embryo

Header: Early cleavages in animal development

Fertilized egg -> undergoes cleavage -> morula -> blastocyst -> implants after 7 days

After implantation, the placenta begins to secrete HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin), which tells the corpus leutum to stay alive and keep secreting estradiol and progesterone

Q: After the [...], the placenta is fully developed and secretes its own [...]
A: first trimester; estradiol and progesterone

Q: Cells in the embryo undergo [...], when the cell becomes committed to a specialized development path, and when they form the specialized tissue they have undergone [...]
A: determination; differentiation

Skin, liver, and blood cells are multipotent stem cells and are not terminally differentiated so that they can regenerate the often damaged or lost tissue

Q: Formation of the [...] occurs in the [...] after fertilization
A: gastrula; third week

Q: Upon the formation of the gastrula, the first [...] occur, when cells enter the [...]
A: cell movements; primative streak

Header: Gastrulation

Header: Neurulation

The neural tube becomes the spinal cord, brain and most of the nervous system

Ectoderm cells near the neural tube form the neural crest which form the accessory cells of the nervous system like Schwann cells, and also the secondary neruons of the ANS, and endocrine cells like the adrenal medulla and thyroid C cells

Q: [...] is the process by which cells stop proliferating in response to environmental stressors
A: Senescence

Q: Another name for birth is [...]
A: parturition

Q: Motor development goes from the [...] and from [...]
A: head to toes; inside out

The main enzyme of fermentation is lactate dehydrogenase which reduces pyruvate into lactate and oxidizes NADH -> NAD+

Q: In yeast fermentation reduces pyruvate into [...]
A: ethanol + CO2

DHAP is an important intermediate in glycolysis because it is used in hepatic and adipose tissue to synthesize triacylglycerol

The irreversible enzymes of glycolysis are glucokinase or hexokinase, PFK-1, and Pyruvate Kinase
Extra: How Glycolysis Pushes Forward the Process: Kinases

Q: [...] is the only way RBCs can produce ATP
A: Anaerobic glycolysis

Q: The enzyme [...] in RBCs produces [...] from 1,3 BPG and this product moves the [...] right
A: BPG mutase; 2,3-BPG; hemoglobin O2 dissociation curve

Header: Sleep waves

Q: [...] of sleep is dominated by theta waves, characterized by hypnagonic hallucinations, tetris effect, and hypnic jerks
A: Stage 1

Q: [...] of sleep is where you see sleep spindles, and K complexes as you get into deeper sleep
A: Stage 2

Q: [...] are a burst of rapid brain activity that help inhibit certain perceptions so that you maintain tranquil sleep
A: Sleep spindles

Q: [...] supress cortical arousal and keep you asleep. They also help sleep based memory consolidation
A: K-Complexes

Q: [...] is when some memories are transferred to long term memory during sleep, particularly [...]
A: Sleep based memory consolidation; declarative/explicit memories

Q: [...] sleep is slow wave sleep where you are very difficult to awaken. It is characterized by [...]
A: Stage 3; delta waves

Q: During REM sleep your body is [...]
A: paralyzed

Q: [...] sleep is the most important for memory consolidation and the formation of episodic memories, and is also known as [...] as your brain is awake but your body prevents it from doing anything
A: REM; paradoxical sleep

Q: Circadian rhythms are controlled by [...] produced in the [...]
A: melatonin; pineal gland

Q: During dreams, your brainwaves look like you are [...]
A: completely awake

Q: Activity in the [...] is decreased in [...] sleep, leading to the weird logic happening in dreams
A: prefrontal cortex; REM

Q: The [...] Hypothesis of dreams says that the frontal cortex receives [...], from which it tries to derive meaning
A: Activation Synthesis; many neural impulses from the brainstem

Q: Lack of sleep makes you susceptible to obesity due to an increase in [...] and [...]
A: cortisol; gherlin

Q: Induced states of consciousness include [...] and [...]
A: hyponosis; meditation

Q: [...] attention is driven by bottom-up or external events, i.e. they pop out
A: Exogenous

Q: [...] attention is driven by top-down or internal events, an example is the cocktail party effect, where you can hear your name because it has meaning to you
A: Endogenous

Q: [...] is the inability to recognize an unexpected object, event, or stimulus that is in 'plain sight'
A: Inattentional blindness

Q: [...] is defined as the tendency for people to choose relationships with other people who have similar attributes.
A: Homophily

Q: [...] is how people are categorized into rankings of socioeconomic tiers
A: Social stratification

Q: [...] is the process in which individuals or people are systematically blocked from (or denied full access to) various rights, opportunities and resources that are normally available to members of a different group, and which are fundamental to social integration within that particular group[2] (e.g., housing, employment, healthcare, civic engagement, democratic participation, and due process).
A: Social exclusion

Q: [...] is the realization of solidarity with one another in the same social class as you.
A: Class consciousness
Extra: Karl Marx thought this up

Q: [...] calls attention to how identity categories combine in systems of social stratification
A: Intersectionality
Extra: Ex. Female who is African American and practices Buddhist teachings, causing her to be discriminated against in 3 different areas

Q: A [...] in sociology refers to the processes or pathways through which an outcome is brought into being (why or how it happened)
A: causal mechanism
Extra: This requires that the process that leads to an outcome eg negative health outcomes, has a mechanism of happening.
So A person with lower SES is more likely to have mental health issues, is not a causal mechanism through which SES may affect health outcomes, because it does not provide an explanation of the process or path. If it said a person with low SES is more likely to have mental health issues which prevent them from eating healthy, it would be a causal mechanism

Q: Damage to the amygdala has been linked to difficulty attending to facial expressions that would normally signal [...].
A: fear

Q: [...] requires that interpretation must happen before arousal or emotion, which happen simultaneously. It does not rely on a physiological response
A: Lazarus theory

Q: [...] refers to a tendency to attribute one's own actions to external causes, while attributing other people's behaviors to internal causes when watching someone perform another task then performing it themselves
A: actor-observer bias
Extra: similar to self-serving bias

Q: [...] are the environment around the message and the speaker’s background. This include's the speaker's presitige or where the information comes from - internet poll, pysch journal, etc.
A: Source characteristics
Extra: Source characteristics – the environment around the message and the speaker’s background.  What is their level of expertise of speakers around us – do they seem knowledgeable, trustworthy, and is information credible or not. Where does the information come from – internet poll, street poll, or a psych journal. Physical environment, venue of event (campus or a bar).

Q: [...] in persuasion are the characteristics of the listener such as mood, self-esteem, alertness, intelligence, etc
A: Target characteristics

Q: [...] focuses on superficial characteristics (shallow processing of information) such attractiveness of speaker, their PowerPoint attractiveness, or even how many points the speaker made. How many times speaker got audience to laugh, etc.
A: Peripheral processing

Q: [...] tends to create a temporary attitude change, while [...] creates a lasting attitude change
A: Peripheral processing; central processing

Q: A [...] is an internal state that an individual acts to reduce
A: drive

Q: The [...] is a psychological theory that attempts to explain behavior as a [...] together with stress from life experiences.
A: diathesis–stress model; predispositional vulnerability

Q: When people who agree upon a topic are allowed to discuss their attitudes, they tend to become more [...]
A: polarized
Extra: Group polarization

Q: Uncontrollable exposure to an aversive stiumulus results in [...]
A: learned helplessness

Q: REgular breathing and heart rate and slow brain waves are most consistent with [...], stages [...]
A: deep sleep; 3 and 4

Q: When a response results in escape from an aversive stimulus it is an example of [...]
A: negative reinforcement
Extra: It causes something to be more likely

According to humanistic theory, when the ideal self and real self are similar the result is a postive self-concept
Extra: Carl Rogers' humanistic theory

Q: According to [...], when the ideal self does not match the real self, the result is [...]
A: humanistic theory; incongruity

Q: [...] are the changes in brain size as a function of environmental influences
A: Neural plasticity

Q: [...] ouccrs when an individual completes a managable task in front of an audience. If the task were too hard, it might increase [...] beyond optimal and interfere with the performance
A: Social facilitation; arousal

Q: [...] is enhanced memory when testing takes place under the same conditions as learning
A: Encoding specificity

Q: [...] is transferring information from the temporary store in working memory into the permanent store in long-term memory
A: Encoding

Q: Hypothetical reasoning is mastered in Piaget's [...]
A: formal operational stage
Extra: Sensory motor: 0-2 yrs
Preoperational: 2-7 yrs
Concrete operational: 7-11 yrs
Formal Operational: 12+

Q: Phobic responses are usually aquired through [...]
A: classical conditioning

Q: [...] is the loss of a response to a repeating stimulus
A: Habituation

Q: [...] explains that things farther away move slower and closer things move faster. It is a [...] cue
A: Motion parallax; monocular

Q: A [...] is a difference in health outcomes that is closely related to [...] or [...] factors
A: health disparity; social; economic

Q: [...] is defined as the stress that people feel when they are confronted with incompatible role expectations across different social statuses they occupy
A: Role conflict

Q: Associated with the [...] theoretical paradigm in sociology, the concept of [...] describes the alienation that individuals feel when social norms and social bonds are weak
A: functionalist; anomie

Q: The [...] says the way in which people see themselves is based on how they believe others perceive them during social interactions
A: looking glass self

Q: The [...] refers to a research perspective that condsiders how experiences from earlier in life affect outcomes later in life
A: life course approach

Q: [...] suggests that social networks provide valuable resources
A: Social capital

Q: [...] is a perspective on deviance that suggests labels get applied to certain groups or individuals regardless of [...]
A: Labeling theory; specific behavior

Q: [...] presumes that ideas are created through historical processes, that are socially defined and culturally distinct
A: Social constructionism

Q: [...] is a research method that involves observing [...] in real social settings
A: Ethnographic research; social interactions

Q: The [...] refers to the negative correlation between socioeconomic status and health risks
A: socioeconomic gradient in health

Q: [...] is the inability to carry out all obligations of one status
A: Role strain

Q: [...] refers to how discrimination from one institution/organization/sector can influence another negatively
A: Side-effect discrimination
Extra: Criminal justice reached unfair verdict, and potential employers are swayed too (employer is swayed and unjustly discriminates unintentional because of another institution – in this case the court system).

Q: [...] refers to how things done in the past, even if no longer allowed, can have consequences for people in the present
A: Past-In-Present discrimination
Extra: Ex. After Brown vs. Board verdict, but girl in integrated school still doesn’t feel welcome in her classroom.

Q: [...] are formed when members come together through shared goals, ex. religious groups or MADD. Positive sense of unity and purpose
A: Normative organizations

Q: [...] are organizations where members don't have a choice about membership, ex. people in a prison, or the military
A: Coercive organizations

Q: [...] refers to the phenomenon where principles of efficienty, calculability, predictability, and control have dominated everything, from medicine, to sporting events to entertainment. Ex. all movie theaters looks the same and work similarly
A: McDonaldization

Q: When an animal no longer receives regular reinforcement, its original behavior will sometimes spike (meaning increase dramatically) - this is known as an [...]
A: extinction burst.

Q: The [...] creates an integrated representation of the visual spatial information and verbal info that it stores in the [...]
A: central executive; episodic buffer

Q: A [...], or a [...], is the incorrect rejection of the null hypothesis
A: Type 1 error; false positive

Q: A [...] is a [...], or failing to detect an effect that is present (incorrectly retaining a false null hypothesis)
A: type II error; false negative

Q: Sensory adaptation requires a [...] strength of stimulus
A: constant

Q: Kinesthesia is the sense of [...]
A: movement

Q: [...] describes the sense of position and balance
A: Proprioception

Q: The [...] would be the result of a paired stimulus causing a response that it normally would not, i.e. the dog salivating because of a bell ringing.
A: conditioned response

Q: [...] considers how individuals interact with their environment and society
A: Symbolic interactionism

Q: In conflict theory, the [...] describes the initial environment, the status quo
A: thesis

Q: In conflict theory, the [...] is the push-back from those unhappy with the status quo
A: anti-thesis

Q: [...] theory believes that decisions are made by rational beings who have weighed all aspects of the problem, and who then proceed to make the best decision.
A: Exchange-rational choice

Q: All sight axons leading from the temporal side [...] the optic chiasm, while ones from the nasal side [...]
A: DO NOT CROSS; do

Q: All right visual field goes to the [...] of the brain, and vice versa
A: left side

Q: Behavioral change is not usually acheived with shock or scare tacticts, as they do not necessarily create [...]
A: cognitive dissonance

Q: [...] is a strategy used to reduce dissonance and involves avoiding information that might cause discomfort
A: Selective exposure

Q: [...] explains that when someone does something and there is no good reason for them doing it, this creates more dissonance than if they can explain it
A: Minimum Justification Principle

Q: [...] often follows an impulsive purchase that is difficult to return
A: Post-decision dissonance

Q: [...] refer to events that are in the background of most individual’s lives (like pollution, noise, or traffic)
A: Ambient stressors

Q: MRI has found that there is a significant loss of [...] in Schizophrenia patients
A: temporal lobe gray matter

Q: [...] is a nuclear medicine, functional imaging technique that is used to observe metabolic processes in the body
A: Positron emission tomography (PET)

Q: Substances precipitate whenever their ionic concentrations [...]
A: exceed the Ksp

Q: [...] is movement from the golgi apparatus back to the endoplasmic reticulum
A: Retrograde transport

Q: The mouth is formed from an invagination of the [...]
A: ectoderm

Q: [...] occurs when a group is selected for a study in such a way that some of members of the intended population are less likely to be included than others
A: Sampling bias

Q: Confirmation bias has found to be stronger for [...] topics
A: emotionally charged

Q: An [...] is a group with an identifiable membership that engages in concerted action to achieve a common purpose
A: organization

Q: According to Mead's theory of identity, the [...] is the spontaneous and autonomous part of the self
A: I

Q: According to Mead, the [...] is the part of the self that is formed in interaction with others and with the general social environment
A: me

Q: [...] is the cause or causes of a particular disease or disorder
A: Etiology

Q: [...] refers to motivation that stems from the contrasts in opposite stimuli, like pain and pleasure
A: Opponent process theory

Q: Sleepwalking occurs primarily in [...] sleep
A: stage 3

Q: Atonia is [...]
A: skeletal muscle paralysis

Q: On a hypnogram, REM sleep is the level [...]
A: below wakefulness

Q: REM sleep shows up as [...] waves on an EEG
A: high frequency saw-tooth

Q: A [...] variable is categorical and cannot be ranked in order. As an example, there are many different eye colors (green, blue, brown, etc) but they can’t be put in any order.
A: nominal

Q: An [...] variable is categorical and can be ranked in order. An example could be education experience (elementary school graduate, secondary school graduate, some college, or college graduate) - these can be put in order from lowest to highest.
A: ordinal

Q: [...] variables have only two levels. Examples include “yes or no” and “deceased or alive.”
A: Dichotomous

Q: [...] are like mental maps in our heads where we connect related concepts.
A: Semantic networks

Header: Antibody structure

Q: [...] are the phagocytic cells that release the bacteria fragments
A: Neutrophils

Q: [...] don't release antigens, they present them to lymphocytes of the adaptive immune system
A: Macrophage

Q: [...] is a non-specific immune reaction to noxious stimuli
A: Inflammation

Q: The molecular mediators of [...] are the cytokines and chemokines
A: inflammation

Q: [...] stimulate the transmigration, or [...], of neutrophils, while [...] guides neutrophils to the area where microbes are growing
A: Cytokines; diapedis; C5a

Q: [...] are leukocytes that bind to the surface of cancer cells, virus infected cells, and cells with intracellular microbial pathogens and destroy them
A: Natural Killer Cells

Q: [...] receptors are found on every nucleated cell in the human body
A: MHC 1

Q: Natural Killer Cells destroy a cell whenever it is [...] and not [...]
A: displaying the stress protein; displaying the MHC1

Q: Macrophage, dendritic cells and neutrophils recognize pathogens by [...] interacting with [...]
A: PRR; PAMPs

Q: PRRs involved in the initiation of the immune response are called [...]
A: Toll-Like Receptors, TLRs

Q: [...] mark pathogens for destruction by phagocytic cells
A: Opsonins

Q: Histamine is released by [...] upon invasion by a pathogen
A: mast cells

Q: Histamine causes increased capillary [...] and local arteriolar [...]
A: permeability; dialation

Q: Complement can destroy a cell by forming the [...]
A: membrane attack complex

Q: The classical complement pathway relies on an [...] to recognize the cell to be destroyed
A: antibody

Q: Antibodies and T-cell receptors do not interact with the whole microbe. They only interact with the [...]
A: epitope

Q: An [...] is a specific site recognized by the antibody
A: epitope

Plasma cells reside in the medulla of a lymph node, while T cells are in the paracortex, and antigen presenting cells and B cells are in the cortex

Q: [...] is found on [...], which include [...]
A: MHC II; professional antigen presenting cells; B-lymphocytes, macrophage, and dendritic cells

Q: T cells can recognize antigen only when [...]
A: its presented on MHC

Q: Each T Cell has [...] type(s) of T-cell receptor
A: one

Q: When a T-Helper cell binds to an antigen presenting cell's MHC with its T-cell receptor, it releases [...]
A: cytokines

Q: T-cytotoxic cells recognize [...] and destroy the presenting cell, while T-helper cells recognize [...] and release cytokines
A: MHC-1; MHC-2

Q: T-Helper cells have [...] to stabilize the interaction with MHC1, while T-cytotoxic cells have [...]
A: CD4; CD8

Q: [...] cells stimulate antigen reactive [...] cells to produce antibodies
A: T-Helper; B

Q: Cytokines from T-h cell convert a B cell into an effector which is capable of [...]
A: secreting antibodies

Q: [...] cells are capable of becoming memory cells
A: Both T and B

Q: The units for electric field are [...] or [...]
A: Volts / meter; Newtons / Coloumb

Q: The temperature of a substance at its melting point will not increase until [...]
A: all of the substance has melted

Q: The voltage drop due to a resistor is [...]
A: V = IR

Q: As an electron heads towards the anode in an electrolytic cell, it [...]
A: accelerates
Extra: Charged particles accelerate in an electric field. e- attracted to + charged anode, increases speed

Q: The electrons ejected from a cathode are replaced by the electrons from the [...]
A: battery and anode

Q: The potential energy of an oscillatory motion is [...]
A: 1/2kx^2

Q: Charge cannot accumulate indefinitely on a capacitor becuase successive charges brought to the plates are [...]
A: repelled by charges accumulated earlier

Q: As a capacitor discharges, the voltage across it [...]
A: falls

Right hand rule for a charge in a magnetic field

Q: [...] is found in the blood and the lymph and is the most abundant Ig
A: IgG

Q: [...] is found in the blood and lymph and is the best Ig at activating complement
A: IgM

Q: [...] is the first antibody class produced in response to an infection, then there is a big surge of [...] created
A: IgM; IgG

Q: [...] is found on the surface of mature B-cells and binds to antigens and interalizes them
A: IgD

Q: [...] is secreted as a dimer
A: IgA

Q: [...] is the most effective Ig against parasites and is involved in the allergic response
A: IgE

Q: Red blood cells produce 2,3-BPG from [...] and this molecule [...]
A: 1,3-BPG; moves the Hb curve right

Q: [...] is a dimer of [...]
A: Lactose; galactose and glucose

Header: Pyruvate metabolism

Q: What molecule is this?
A: Glycogen

Q: Glycogenesis starts with the [...] molecule and couples it using the enzyme [...]
A: glucose-6-phosphate; glycogen synthase

Q: [...] is the enzyme that introduces the [...] branches to glycogen
A: Branching enzyme; alpha 1-6

Q: The rate limiting enzyme of glycogenolysis is [...]
A: glycogen phosphorylase

Header: Glycogen metabolism

Q: [...] amino acids can be converted into intermediates that feed into gluconeogenesis
A: Glucogenic

Q: [...] amino acids can be converted into ketone bodies which are used as alternative fuel during periods of prolonged starvation
A: Ketogenic

Q: Dietary fructose and galactose can be converted to glucose in the [...]
A: liver

Pyruvate carboxylase is the first enzyme of gluconeogesis and converts pyruvate into oxaloacetate which can leave the mitochondria

Acetyl-CoA from beta oxidation builds up, signaling that the cell is energenically satisfied. This inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase and activates pyruvate carboxylase to begin gluconeogenesis to produce glucose for other cells

Q: The combinations of the enzymes [...] and [...] are the gluconeogenesis opposite of the glycolysis enzyme pyruvate kinase
A: pyruvate carboxylase; PEP carboxykinase (PEPCK)

Header: Theories of emotion

Header: Gluconeogenesis

Q: [...], which functions in the [location] is the rate-limiting step of gluconeogenesis
A: Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase; cytoplasm

Header: Lineweaver-Burke Plot

Q: A [...] is the opposite enzyme of a kinase
A: phosphatase

Q: Microfilaments are another name for [...]
A: actin filaments

Q: Thick filaments are composed of [...]
A: myosin

Q: The stereochemical designators alpha and beta distinguish between [...] at an [...]
A: epimers; anomeric carbon atom

Q: In order to identify a mutant allele with southern blotting, the mutation must take place at [...]
A: a restriction site, eliminating the cut and resulting in different DNA fragments that can be identified

Q: Restriction enzyme sites are DNA sequence [...]
A: palindromes

Q: The average molecular weight of an amino acid is [...]
A: 110 Da

Q: An enzyme with cooperative binding will have a hill coeffecient that is [...], while one that is completely independent will have one that is [...]
A: greater than 1; equal to 1

Q: Isoelectric focusing requires a [...] in the gel before adding samples
A: stable pH gradient

Q: The slope of the lineweaver burke line is [...]
A: Km / Vmax

Q: Uncompetitive inhibitors [...] of a lineweaver burke plot
A: do not change the slope of the line

Header: Lineweaver burke plots for different inhibitor types

Q: Uncompetitive inhibitors work most effectively whenever the [...] is the highest
A: substrate concentration
Extra: Uncompetetive inhibitors bind their target enzymes only when the substrate is first bound to the enzyme

Header: Centrifuge

Q: Signal sequence domains are protein domains required for proteins that are [...]
A: directed toward secretory pathways

Q: [...] are the only elements that vary in different cells and therefore can confer both temporal and spatial regulation of their target genes
A: Nuclear factors

Q: Protein oligomers often form based on [...] interactions between the n domains
A: hydrophobic

Q: A [...] is a protein subunit composed of two different subunits
A: heterodimer

Q: [...] reducing nucleotides are created per round of the citric acid cycle
A: 4
Extra: 3 NADH, 1 FADH2

Q: [...] catalyzes the final step of both [...] and [...]
A: glucose 6-phosphatase; gluconeogenesis; glycogenolysis

Q: The efficiency of an enzyme is measured by [...]
A: kcat / Km

Q: In cDNA cloning, DNA ligase is used to [...]
A: join the desired gene with the plasmid DNA

Q: [...] is a measurement of all individuals affected by the disease at a particular time
A: Prevalence

Q: [...] is decision making or evaluation based on personal, poorly measurable, and unverifiable data or feelings that are improperly weighted agains unbiased data
A: Subjective bias

Q: GTP is generated in the TCA step of [...] catalyzed by [...]
A: succinyl-CoA -> succinate; succinyl-CoA synthetase

Q: The pentose phosphate pathway results in the generation of [...]
A: NADPH

Q: Lipoic acid is a cofactor for the enzyme [...]
A: pyruvate dehydrogenase

Q: Protons are pumped into the mitochondrial [...]
A: intermembrane space

Q: The coding strand of DNA generates RNA with the [...]
A: same sequence, with Uracil substituted

Q: Histone acetylases activate DNA on histones by [...] in the histone, [...], causing their [...]
A: adding an acetyl group to lysine residues; reducing their positive charge; association with DNA to lessen

Q: Peptide bonds are formed by the enzyme [...], and requires a [...] for energy
A: peptidyl transferase; GTP

Q: Elongation factors [...] and [...] to aid elongation
A: recruit tRNA; GTP

G protein coupled receptors signal by binding with their ligand, releasing the active alpha subunit with GTP which alters adenylate cyclase and therefore cAMP formation. The G protein is reformed whenever the inactive alpha subunit with GDP reconnects with the beta and gamma subunits

Q: Protein kinase A is an enzyme whose activity is dependent on cellular levels of [...] and is activated by [...]
A: cAMP; G protein coupled receptors
Extra: It regulates other protein's functions in response to a ligand binding a G protein coupled receptor

Q: In isoelectric focusing, the pH is lower at the [...] and higher at the [...]
A: positively charged anode; negatively charged cathode

Q: Synthetases are a ligase that [...] and hence [...]
A: synthesizes new molecules by combining different compounds; utilizes a higher energy source such as ATP

Q: Pyruvate kinase forms [...] from [...] with [...]
A: pyruvate; PEP; ADP -> ATP

Q: Fermentation is [...] done to produce [...] for glycolysis
A: reduction; NAD+

Q: The reaction that produces NADPH in the pentose phosphate pathway is [...] and the reaction is catalzyed by [...]
A: G6P -> 6-phosphogluconate; glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

Q: The enzyme glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase is induced by [...] and inhibited by [...]
A: insulin; NADPH
Extra: Enzyme from pentose phosphate pathway
Insulin signals abundance of sugar
NADPH is a product of the enzyme, along with 6-phosphogluconate

Q: Production of NADH, FADH2, and NADPH is usually catalyzed by [...] enzymes
A: dehydrogenase

The cell cycle goes G1 -> S or G0 -> G2 -> Mitosis

Q: A [...] involves listening to things in both ears and being asked to recall what was heard in only one ear. This tests [...]
A: shadowing task; selective attention

Q: [...] is the failure to notice changes in the environment
A: Change blindness

Q: Verbal inputs to the left ear go to the [...] and then must be processed by the [...] of the [...] hemisphere
A: right auditory cortex; language areas; left

Q: Normal distributions follow the [...] rule, which tells you what percentage will be within 1, 2, or 3 sigma. IQ tests have a std dev of 15, so [...] will score between 85-115
A: 68-95-99.7; 68%

Q: Stimulants act like hormones in the brain and increase [...] metabolism
A: glucose

Q: Continuous reinforcement is best for the beginning of the acquisition phase of operant conditioning because it [...]
A: unambiguously informs the subject which behavior is correct

Q: [...] is the phenomenon whereby established habits learned by operant techniques are replaced by [...]
A: Instinctual drift; innate food-related behaviors

Q: [...] intelligence and the ability to retrieve [...] are not affected by aging
A: Crystallized; general information

Q: [...] is based on the idea that what people experience depends partly on [...]
A: response expectancy theory; what they expect to experience

Q: When a ligand binds a G protein coupled receptor, it enables [...], activating the [...] subunit
A: GTP to bind to the receptor; alpha

Q: [...] information consists of the declarative information people have of specific experiences
A: Episodic

Q: The [...] is the stimulation that occurs when your sensory receptors are activated, specifically the neural activity
A: proximal stimulus

Q: The [...] is the stimulus or object in the real world that you end up sensing and then perceiving
A: distal stimulus

Q: [...] is the theoretical approach that emphasizes the idea that the ways in which people's perceptual experience is organized results from how human brains are organized
A: Gestalt pscyhology

Q: [...] directly assess our perception of stimuli in relation to their true physical properties
A: Psychophysical testing methods

Q: In the pyschophysical test known as the [...], a stimulus is started at an inperceptible level, and raised until it can be detected, or vice versa
A: method of limits

Q: [...] is when people claim to remember detail of what they were doing when they received news about an emotionally arousing event
A: Flashbulb memory

Q: A [...] is a memory report that is inaccurate, but expressed with extrememe confidence
A: false memory

Q: Operationalization is a process of defining the [...], though its existence is indicated by other phenomena
A: measurement of a phenomenon that is not directly measureable
Extra: For example, in medicine, the phenomenon of health might be operationalized by one or more indicators like body mass index or tobacco smoking. As another example, in visual processing the presence of a certain object in the environment could be inferred by measuring specific features of the light it reflects

Q: The [...] identifies a point in early in development that can have a significant influence on physiological or behavioral functioning in later life
A: sensitive period (aka critical period)

Q: [...] focuses on the contribution of social and cultural factors to disease partterns in populations
A: Social epidemiology

Q: [...] refers to knowledge, skills, education, and similar characteristics that are used to make social distinctions and that are associated with differences in social status
A: Cultural capital

Q: Social cognitive theory suggests that behaviors are learned through [...] and [...] their actions
A: observing others; modeling

Q: [...] refers to adjusting your behavior to emulate that of those you observe
A: Modeling
Extra: An example would be the establishment of social norms because children and adolescents observe others in society doing particular things

Q: Symbollic interactionism examines [...] social interactions
A: small scale

Q: [...] addresses changes in the birth rate and the death rate that are associated with economic development
A: Demographic transition theory
Extra: Death rate initially falls due to development, then birth rate falls leading to population stabilization

Q: [...] is an imaging technique that measures brain activity by detecting associated changes in blood flow
A: fMRI

Q: The nucleus accumbens is a structure near the hypothalamus that plays a large role in [...]
A: reward

Q: The [...] is involved in regulating blood pressure and heart rate as well as reward anticipation, decision making, impulse control, and emotion
A: anterior cingulate cortex

Q: The 6 universal emotions include [...]
A: fear, anger, surprise, happiness, disgust, and sadness

Q: [...] is a fear of strangers that infants start to display around [...] of age
A: Stranger anxiety; 8 months

Q: [...] is the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they can't be seen or sensed
A: Object permanence

Q: [...] posits that one is able to hear different pitches becuase different sound waves trigger activity at different places along the cochlea's basilar membrane
A: Place theory

Q: [...] is the process by which the eye changes optical power to maintain a clear image or focus on an object as its distance varies
A: accommodation

Q: [...], aka [...] occurs when near surfaces overlap far surfaces
A: Occulation; interposition

Q: [...] occurs when exposure to one stimulus affects response to another stimulus, even if we haven't been paying attention to it.
A: Priming
Extra: If you continuously reach for a red pen in a cup, when asked to get the blue pen, it will take longer to retrieve it

Q: [...] is facts or events that you can clearly describe
A: Explicit memory

Q: [...] is a type of long term memory that focuses on recalling previous experiences and information
A: Explicit memory

Q: [...] and [...] memory are the two types of explicit memory
A: Episodic; semantic

Q: [...] is a type of memory in which previous experiences aid the performance of a task without conscious awareness of these previous experiences
A: Implicit memory

Q: Positive priming is caused by [...], while negative priming is caused by [...]
A: simply experiencing the stimulus; experiencing the stimulus and then ignoring it
Extra: Positive and negative refer to when priming affects the speed of processing

Q: [...] decrease the positive symptoms of schizophrenia but can increase the negative symptoms. They are the first generation, [...]
A: Neuroleptics; typical antipsychotics

Q: [...] [...] is the ability to think on one's feet, be adaptable, and solve problems using deductive and inductive reasoning
A: Fluid; intelligence

Q: [...] is a model of the body's stress response that consists of three stages: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. An individual enters the stage of exhaustion only after he has [...]
A: General adaptation syndrome; dealt with the stressor for a long period of time

Q: A depressed person would be expected to experience a greater number of stressful events that he or she influences, which are known as [...]
A: dependent stressors

Q: Information about space, time, and frequency of events is automatically processed but conscious effort is needed to process [...]
A: novel information

Q: According to signal detection theory the detection of a stimulus is not only dependent on its strength, but also on the [...]
A: psychological state of the individual

Q: Images projected to a visual field are represented in the [...] of the brain
A: opposite hemisphere
Extra: If you see something to your left, you will process it on your right.

Q: Research on cognitive dissonance has found that people tend to change their [...] to match their [...], rather than [...]
A: attitudes; behaviors; change their behavior
Extra: Someone working for a council member where they disagree with their policies will likely change their attitudes to be more in line with the council members

Q: Someone who has had to move from a salaried professional position to an hourly position has experienced [...] mobility
A: vertical

Q: Hydroquinone and benzoquinone structure
A: Hydro:
Benzo:

Q: The [...] states that the [...], or remains constant in ideal cases where the system is in a steady state or undergoing a reversible process
A: second law of thermodynamics; total entropy of an isolated system always increases over time

Q: What type of molecule is this?
A: It's a phosphatide. It is phosphatidyl choline

Q: When figuring out what the electron configuation of an atom is, make sure to take into account its [...]
A: charge
Extra: Co(II) dication is [Ar]3d7, while Co is [Ar]4s23d7. Transition metals lose from their s subshell first

Q: Kinases are classified as [...] enzymes
A: transferase

Q: [...] is a protein that mobilizes proteins and lipids in blood serum
A: Albumin

Q: A protein with a lower Tm is [...]
A: less conformationally stable
Extra: Tm is the denaturation midpoint

Q: Slope is [...]
A: rise over run

Q: The michaelis-menten plot is [...] if there is no cooperativity but [...] if there is
A: hyperbolic; sigmoidal

Q: Anion exchange columns slow down [...] charged molecules, while cation exchange slow down [...] charged molecules
A: negatively; positively

Q: If a protein is a homo-n-mer, it will show as [...] on SDS page, and its mol weight will be [...] times what the gel shows
A: 1 band; n

Cytosine structure

Thymine structure

Uracil structure

Guanine structure

Adenine structure

Purines and pyrimidines

Q: His6 tag with nickel column chromatography is a type of [...] chromatography
A: affinity

Q: Nickel is often used in [...] chromatography
A: affinity

Q: Biotin is often used to [...] due to its affinity for [...]
A: stick molecules to the plate; avidin

Q: The first law of thermodynamics states that the [...]
A: total energy of an isolated system is constant

Q: NaCl is required to elute molecules in [...]
A: anion or cation chromatography
Extra: It binds with the column and the molecule so it can eventually go through

Q: The Tm is the temperature at which [...]
A: 50% of the molecules are denatured

Q: Galactose is an [...] that is an epimer of glucose at [...]
A: aldohexose; c-4
Extra: Galactose:
Glucose:

Q: The hydrogen bond [...] has the hydrogen, while the [...] has the lone pair
A: donor; acceptor

Q: Basic residues [...] PI while acidic ones [...] it
A: raise; lower

Q: What molecule is this?
A: Glycerol-3-phosphate, not glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

Q: The unfolding of proteins is a [...] process
A: cooperative
Extra: It has a sigmoidal binding curve

Q: The citric acid cycle takes place in the [...] [...]
A: mitochondrial; matrix

The rate limiting enzyme of the citric acid cycle is isocitrate dehydrogenase and it catalyzes the conversion of Isocitrate -> alpha-ketogluterate with NAD+ -> NADH and loss of CO2

acetyl coa structure

Q: [...] includes things that are common knowledge, such as the names of colors, the sounds of letters, the capitals of countries and other basic facts acquired over a lifetime.
A: Semantic memory

Q: Glycolysis takes place in the [...]
A: cytoplasm

Q: D-glucose looks like it's giving you the [...]
A: middle finger

Q: [...] carbons are lost as [...] in the citric acid cycle
A: 2; CO2
Extra: They are lost in the alpha ketogluterate and succinyl coa formation steps

Acetyl CoA

Oxaloacetate

Citrate (looks like a trident)

cis-aconitate, intermediate b/w citrate and isocitrate

isocitrate

α-ketogluterate

Succinyl-CoA

Succinate

Fumarate

Malate

Q: Enzymes of the citric acid cycle
A: Citrate synthase
cis-Aconitase
Isocitrate dehydrogenase
α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Succinyl-CoA synthetase
Succinate dehydrogenase
Fumarase
Malate dehydrogenase

Q: Pyruvate dehydrogenase is deactivated by [...] and activated again by [...]
A: Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase; Pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase

The three enzyme checkpoints of the citric acid cycle are citrate synthase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, and α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase. These are all regulated by allosteric activators and inhibitors

Q: [...] is inhibited by ATP, NADH, citrate, and succinyl-CoA
A: Citrate synthase

Q: NAD+ and ADP allosterically activate [...] in the citric acid cycle
A: isocitrate dehydrogenase

Q: High levels of [...] inhibit the citric acid cycle while high levels of [...] promote it
A: ATP and NADH; ADP and NAD+

Q: [...] is considered a [...] because it is covalently bonded FAD
A: Succinate dehydrogenase; flavoprotein

Q: Pyruvate degradation takes place in the [...]
A: mitochondria

Q: The percent dissociation of an acid can be calculated with the equation [...]
A: [H+]/[HA] * 100%

Q: What type of lipid is this molecule?
A: Sphingolipid, specifically a sphingomyelin

Header: Hydrogen bonding

Q: Whenever [...] the solute will not preciptate
A: Q < Ksp

Q: Formula for osmotic pressure
A: п = MRT
where п is the osmotic pressure, [M] is the total molarity (called osmolarity), R is the gas constant (or 8.314), and T is the standard temperature of 273.15 K.

Q: Ubiquinone is [...] during the electron transport chain
A: reduced to ubiquinol and oxidized

Q: A suicide inhibitor is an [...] inhibitor
A: irreversible

Q: A N*m is the equivalent of a [...]
A: Joule J

Q: The residual volume of the lungs is the volume left after [...]
A: interpleural pressure has reached its maximum

Q: The only viable trisomies are [...]
A: 21, 18, and 13

Q: You end up with a cell with a haploid number of chromosomes after [...]
A: meiosis I

Q: Chromosomal crossover occurs in [...]
A: prophase I

Q: The [...], and not the [...] get pulled apart in anaphase I
A: homologous pairs of chromosomes; sister chromatids

Q: The catecholamines are derived from the molecule [...]
A: tyrosine

Q: In meiosis II, [...] are separated
A: sister chromatids

Q: Real time PCR is used to measure current levels of [...]
A: mRNA expresssion

Q: A nucleoside has a [...]
A: nitrogenous base and a five carbon sugar

Q: The blood-brain barrier protects the brain from harmful agents that are [...]
A: large or polar

Q: [...] is when a child will play by themselves but observe another child playing and adjust their behavior in response
A: Parallel play

Q: [...] states that in large societies individuals become interdependent on each other as everyone is specialized in different role
A: Functionalism

Q: [...] are norms that are deemed highly necessary to the welfare of a society and have consequences if violated
A: Mores

Q: The [...] is the brain structure responsible for muscle memory
A: cerebellum

Q: In operant conditioning, [...] refers to reducing the frequency of rewards for a given action
A: thinning

Q: [...] is a basic conflict that emerges when an individual reaches maturity (65 or older) and is reflecting on his or her life
A: Ego integrity vs despair

Q: [...] is a basic conflict that occurs during middle adulthood (40-65) when individuals are trying to balance employment and being parents
A: Generativity vs stagnation

Q: [...] is a conflict that occurs during young adulthood (19-40) when individuals need to form intimate relationships with other people
A: Intimacy vs isolation

Q: [...] occurs during adolescence (12-18) when teens are trying to develop social relationships with others and find a sense of self or pesonal identity
A: Identity vs role confusion

Q: [...] looks at the body's short-term and long-term reactions to stress
A: General adaptation syndrome

Q: [...] states that individuals who experience weakened social values are less likely to behave in ways that are helpful to that society
A: Anomie theory

Q: [...] is the interaction between a person’s behaviours, personal factors (motivation/cognition), and environment are all determined by one another
A: Reciprocal determinism

Q: The Gestalt law of [...] states that reality is organized or reduced to the simplest form possible.
A: pragnanz

Q: [...] attempts to measure how we make decisions under conditions of uncertainty
A: Signal detection theory

Q: The [...] of vision is responsible for temporal resolution including rapidly changing aspects of an object like [...]
A: magno pathway; motion

Q: The [...] is responsible for spatial resolution which includes [...] of an object like [...]
A: parvocellular pathway; fine details; form and color

Q: The ion channels in the photoreceptors in the eye are [...] when there is no light
A: open

Q: Cones are worse than rods at perceiving motion because they [...]
A: have a slower recovery period

Q: Priming is a type of [...] memory
A: implicit

Q: The three hydrogen bond donating groups are [...]
A: F-H, N-H, and O-H

Q: The cytosolic leaflet of a lipid particle is in contact with the [...]
A: cytosol

Q: The most stable electron configurations are typically equivalent to the [...]
A: noble gases' configurations

Q: Resistivity equation
A: rho = R * A / l where R is resistance, A is crossectional area, and l is length

Q: Arrhenius acid/base reactions require that [...] be released into solution
A: H+ or OH-

Q: In a Bronstead-Lowry acid base, the [...]
A: acid is a proton donor, and base is a proton acceptor
Extra: Carbonate anion is the proton acceptor, hydronium is the proton donor

Q: Genetic drift typically only happens in [...]
A: small populations

Q: [...] are the cells that produce the components of the extracellular matrix throughout the body
A: Fibroblasts

Q: [...] are assembled in the nucleolus
A: Ribosomes

Q: [...] is the hormone that promotes the production of breast milk, while [...] stimulates its secretion
A: Prolactin; oxytocin

Q: [...] is a hormone that moves calcium from the blood into the bone
A: Calcitonin

Q: Whenever the cell undergoes apoptosis, phosphatidylserine is [...] by [...]
A: no longer restricted to the cytosolic side of the membrane; flippase

Q: Stereotypes are [...], while prejudice is more [...]
A: specific assumptions; general attitudes

Q: The olfactory bulb is located in the [...], so an injury there would be likely to affect olfaction
A: forebrain

Q: Rapid mood swings are a key symptom of [...]
A: borderline personality disorder

Q: Neurotransmitters are synthesized in the [...]
A: soma, aka cell body

Q: The [...] component of prejudice describes how stereotypes are formed from and justified by the information an individual has available to him or herself
A: cognitive

Q: The [...] element of prejudice describes how a person's feelings impact his or her prejudices
A: emotional

Q: [...] is the concept that repeated exposure to stereotyping and prejudice causes members of the stereotyped outgroup to conform to that stereotype
A: Self-fulfilling prophecy

Q: Stereotype threat is the anxiety a stereotyped outgroup may feel about [...]
A: confirming the negative stereotypes of their group

Q: The [...] geniculate nucleus is involved in hearing while the [...] geniculate nucleus is involved in vision
A: medial; lateral

Q: Classical conditioning requires the two stimuli to have been paired [...]
A: many times

Q: Kcat = [...] whenever the enzyme is saturated with substrate
A: Vmax / conc. substrate

Q: Remember to account for the [...] whenever calculating the charge of a polypeptide at a given pH
A: N and C termini

Q: The [...] phosphate is the last phosphate on an ATP
A: gamma

Q: The Lewis acid-base interaction between a metal cation and an electron pair donor is known as a [...]
A: coordinate covalent bond

Q: In [Cu(NH3)4]2+ the 4 represents the [...]
A: coordination number

Q: If a molecule is a better lewis base than another one, it must [...]
A: donate its lone pair of electrons more readily

Q: Lenses with [...] focal lengths are [...] lenses
A: negative; diverging

Q: Secondary protein structure emerges from [...]
A: hydrogen bonds between backbone amide protons and carbonyl oxygens

Q: The amino acid [...] has a sulfhydrl group
A: cysteine

Q: When a macrophage ingests foreign material the material initially becomes trapped in a [...], which then fuses with a [...]
A: phagosome; lysosome

Q: Secretory proteins are synthesized in the [...]
A: rough ER

Q: Proteins that are translocated into the nucleus usually have a [...]
A: nuclear localization sequence

Q: Ubiquitination targets a protein for [...]
A: degredation by a proteasome

Q: If reducing agents can separate a protein's subunits, they are most likely held together by [...]
A: disulfide bridges, which are the thiol groups of cysteines

Q: In order to determine if there has been any post translational modification of a protein, you can use [...]
A: Western blotting

Q: An increase in estrogen will result in an increase in [...] in females
A: LH

Q: The hydrolytic enzymes in lysosomes are activated by [...]
A: low pH

Q: Proteins that move along microtubules move towards the periphery of the cell starting at the [...]
A: centrosome

Q: Sperm become motile and capable of fertilization when they are inside the [...]
A: epididymis

Q: The structure of the eye that is responsible for color vision is the [...]
A: fovea
Extra: It has the most cones

Q: The [...] is a ratio of the number of economically dependent members of the population to the number of economically productive members
A: dependency ratio

Q: The [...] suggests that human cognition is affected by language
A: linguistic relativity hypothesis

Q: When people recall information but they forget the source they are committing a [...]
A: source monitoring error
Extra: ex. angry with someone but forgot it happened in a dream. Or recognize someone but don’t know from where.

Q: [...] refers to social disadvantage by income or wealth as compared to advantage by income or wealth in a society
A: Relative poverty

Q: [...] are organized clusters of knowledge
A: Memory schemas

Q: [...] is most often associated with class-based conceptions of society
A: Conflict theory

Q: [...] refers to the fact that people are more productive alone that in a group
A: Social loafing
Extra: In a study on brainstorming, on average, participants generate more alternatives alone than in a group

Q: Erikson's Trust vs mistrust stage occurs when someone is [...]
A: an infant

Q: Freud's oral stage occurs from ages [...]
A: birth to 12-18 months old

Q: [...] people are self-aware and can delay gratification in persuit of long-term rewards, rather than being overtaken by immediate impulses
A: Emotionally intelligent

Q: [...] first addresses maladaptive behaviors through sessions to systematically modify a person's behavior
A: Cognitive behavorial therapy

Q: Latent and manifest functions are associated with [...]
A: functionalism

Bicarb equation

Header: Freud's stages

Q: The endocrine portion of the pancreas is also known as the [...]
A: Islet of Langerhans

Q: Larger intervals in both space and time can be measured with [...]
A: greater precision

Q: The ksp for Ca(OH)2 is [...]
A: ksp = [Ca2+][OH-]^2

Q: The leutal surge occurs just before [...]
A: ovulation

Q: The groups of the periodic table are the [...] while the periods are the [...]
A: columns; rows

Q: Atomic radius increases going [...]
A: down and to the left

Q: Ionization energy increases going [...]
A: up and to the right

Q: Electronegativity increases going [...]
A: up and to the right

Q: Zeff generally [...] with atomic number except when [...]
A: increases; electrons are added to new shells
Extra: 1s -> 2s increases less than expected, same with 2s -> 3s

Q: [...] is the willingness of an atom to accept an additional electron and increases [...]
A: Electron affinity; up and to the right

Q: The azimuthal quantum number goes from [...] and describes the [...]
A: 0 to the the principal quantum number - 1; subshell shape
Extra: s is a sphere, p is a dumbell

Q: The magnetic quantum number describes the [...] of a given electron and goes from [...]
A: orbital; -azimuthal to azimuthal
Extra: p subshell, azimuthal = 1, orbitals are -1, 0, 1.
s subshell, azimuthal = 0, orbital is just 0.
Orbitals can hold two electrons each

Q: an sp2 orbital has [...] s character thus the electrons are [...] to the nucleus than an sp3 orbital
A: 33%; closer

Q: butane is the alkane with [...] carbons, while propane has [...]
A: 4; 3

Q: SN1 reactions occur when [...]
A: a leaving group dissociates from a carbon, leaving a carbocation that gets attacked

Q: SN2 reactions occur when a [...] and are fastest on a [...] alkane
A: nucleophile attacks a carbon, causing a leaving group to dissociate; methyl, then primary

Q: [...] cells proceed spontaneously
A: Galvanic

Q: When comparing the -ous acids and -ic acids, the -ous acids will have [...] atoms than their -ic counterparts
A: 1 fewer oxygen
Extra: Phosphoric acid    - H3PO4
Phosphorous acid - H3PO3

Q: When doing the gas reactions the temperature must be [...]
A: in kelvin

Q: [...] stabilize conjugate bases, while [...] stabilize conjugate acids
A: Electron withdrawing groups; electron donating groups

Q: The SN2 mechanism favors [...] solvents like [...]
A: polar aprotic; acetone or DMSO

Q: [...] is immunity that is present in the individual at birth, prior to the exposure to a pathogen or antigen
A: Natural immunity
Extra: Includes skin, salivary enzymes, neutrophils, NK cells, and complement

Q: [...] immunity is an immune response that does not invlovle antibodies, but rather involves the activation of phagocytes, antigen-specific cytotokix T-lymphocytes, and the release of various cytokines in response to an antigen
A: Cell-mediated

Q: The [...] system includes anatomical barriers, secretory molecules, and cellular components
A: innate (non-specific) immune
Extra: Skin, movement of the intestines, oscillation of bronchopulmonary cilia

Q: [...] is a cognitive bias that refers to the systematic errors made when people evaluate or try to find reasons for their own and others' behaviors
A: Attributional bias

Q: Round trip time for a ball thrown vertically is [...]
A: t = 2v/g

Q: The element with the lower reduction potential will be [...] in a redox reaction
A: oxidized

Complex I of the electron transport chain oxidizes NADH and reduces CoQ moving 4 hydrogens across the membrane

Q: CoQ is also known as [...]
A: ubiquinone

Complex II in the ETC includes succinate dehydrogenase and its reaction is succinate -> FADH2 + Fumarate -> CoQH2

Complex III is also known as cytochrome c reductase it reduces the iron in cytochrome c from Fe3+ to Fe2+ with CoQH2 through the Q-cycle while also moving 4 hydrogens into the intermembrane space

Complex IV in the ETC is also known as cytochrome c oxidase and it reduces O2 to water and oxidizes cytochrome c, moving 2 hydrogens into the intermembrane space

Q: The Glycerol 3-phosphate shuttle oxidizing [...] into [...] moving electrons into the ETC via [...]
A: glycerol 3 phosphate; DHAP; FADH2

The malate-aspartate shuttle reduces oxaloacetate to malate by oxidizing NADH and reforms NADH and oxaloacetate once the malate has crossed into the mitochondria

Q: FADH2 creates [...] ATPs per molecule while NADH creates [...]
A: 1.5; 2.5

Q: The liver is formed from the [...]
A: endoderm

Q: Connnective tissues are formed from the [...]
A: mesoderm

Q: A [...] hydropathy index indicates that a region of a protein is [...]
A: positive; hydrophobic

Q: [...] lipid chains are more disordered in a membrane than [...] ones
A: Unsaturated; saturated

Q: Caspases mediate many processes of [...]
A: apoptosis

Header: Apoptosis

Q: Kd the dissociation constant represents the [...]
A: ligand concentration that is necessary to achieve 50% binding

Q: The [...] is the [...]
A: specific activity; enzyme units permilligram of total protein in a solution

Q: Size exclusion allows [...] compounds to move more quickly through the column
A: larger

Q: The deamination of cytosine results in [...]
A: uracil

Q: Each molecule of NADH provides [...] for reducing
A: 2 electrons

Q: The [...] folds and becomes the neural tube
A: neural plate

Q: The [...] of a compound is the simplest whole number ratio of the moles of the elements in the compound
A: empirical formula

Q: A [...] molecule diffuses faster than a [...] molecule
A: lighter; heavier

Q: A [...] is equal to one mole of electric charge
A: faraday

Q: An [...] is where a standing wave has maximum displacement
A: antinode

Q: A 2 ohm resistor with 2A passing through it is in parallel with a 4 ohm resistor. The current passing through the 4 ohm resistor is [...]
A: 1A
Extra: The voltage drop across each resistor is equal so:
ir1 = ir2
2*2 = 4x
1 = x

Q: Currents [...] at junctions according to Kirchhoff's junction rule
A: sum

Q: The specific gravity of a solid is the ratio of its weight to the [...]
A: weight of the displaced fluid of the same volume
Extra: Something that weighs 36N and 26N in water has a specific gravity equal to 36N / (36N - 26N) = 3.6

Q: The order of the quantum numbers is [...]
A: principle, azimuthal, magnetic, then spin

Q: [...] is the substance that holds oxygen in the muscles and organs
A: Myoglobin

Q: Increased blood pressure will result in an increased [...] in the kidney
A: GFR
Extra: Increased pressure for filtration

Q: A [...] is a female and a [...] is a male on a pedigree
A: circle; square

Q: [...] are the mildest type of norm, and are just commone rules and manners we are supposed to follow
A: Folkways

Q: A violation of a [...] has much more severe consequences than violation of a more
A: taboo

Q: The [...] states that deviance is a learned behavior that results from continuous exposure to others that violate norms and laws
A: theory of differential association

Q: [...] deviance has no big consquences, but [...] deviance has more serious consequences that result in stigmatizing behavior
A: Primary; secondary

Q: [...] is a level of wealth/income at which your survival is threatened if you go below
A: Absolute poverty

Q: [...] are more ordered regions of the cell membrane that contain glycoproteins and receptors and the like. They can move freely around the membrane as a unit
A: Lipid rafts

Q: When you pull one concept in a semantic network into your head, you might inadvertantly pull other related ones because of [...]
A: spreading activation

Q: Conservation taks are mastered during the [...] stage, which starts at [...] yrs old and goes to [...] yrs
A: concrete operational; 7; 11

Q: [...] theory focuses on the role reward and punishment play in behavior
A: Behavorist

Q: The third law of thermodynamics states that the [...]
A: entropy of a system approaches a constant value as the temperature approaches absolute zero

Q: Prokaryotic organisms lack [...] in their membranes
A: cholesterol

Header: Erik Erikson's stages

Q: Males are [...] on pedigrees and females are [...]
A: squares; circles

Q: Horiztonal bonds on fischer diagrams are going [...] while vertical ones are going [...]
A: out of the page; into the plane of the page

Q: [...] are a component of the bloodstream that are cell fragments
A: Platelets

Q: Power at constant speed is [...]
A: P = F * velocity

Q: Participants must do a [...] for a procedure to test the effect of the foot-in-the-door phenomenon
A: small task

Q: Primary groups are [...] while secondary groups are less associated like [...]
A: close friends and family; coworkers

Q: [...] is a lack of material resources
A: Poverty

Q: The conditions regarding what constitues the male identity are an example of [...]
A: gender schemas

Q: A [...] is organized information regarding the order of actions that are appropriate to a familiar situation
A: script

Q: The [...] is involved in controlling alertness and is most likely to be stimulated to bring someone out of a coma
A: reticular activating system

Q: Rewarding individuals with secondary reinforcers that can be exchanged for appetitive stimuli is typical of a [...]
A: token economy

Galactose structure

Mannose Structure